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NCLEX NCLEX-RN Exam
National Council Licensure Examination - NCLEX-RN (Page 63 )

Updated On: 25-Jan-2026
Page 63 of 345
PDF with 862 Questions

The physician recommends immediate hospital admission for a client with PIH. She says to the nurse, "It's not so easy for me to just go right to the hospital like that." After acknowledging her feelings, which of these approaches by the nurse would probably be best?

  1. Stress to the client that her husband would want her to do what is best for her health.
  2. Explore with the client her perceptions of why she is unable to go to the hospital.
  3. Repeat the physician's reasons for advising immediate hospitalization.
  4. Explain to the client that she is ultimately responsible for her own welfare and that of her baby.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

(A) This answer does not hold the client accountable for her own health. (B) The nurse should explore potential reasons for the client's anxiety: are there small children at home, is the husband out of town? The nurse should aid the client in seeking support or interventions to decrease the anxiety of hospitalization. (C) Repeating the physician's reason for recommending hospitalization may not aid the client in dealing with her reasons for anxiety. (D) The concern for self and welfare of baby may be secondary to a woman who is in a crisis situation. The nurse should explore the client's potential reasons for anxiety. For example, is there another child in the home who is ill, or is there a husband who is overseas and not able to return on short notice?



Pregnant women with diabetes often have problems related to the effectiveness of insulin in controlling their glucose levels during their second half of pregnancy. The nurse teaches the client that this is due to:

  1. Decreased glomerular filtration and increased tubular absorption
  2. Decreased estrogen levels
  3. Decreased progesterone levels
  4. Increased human placental lactogen levels

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

(A) There is a rise in glomerular filtration rate in the kidneys in conjunction with decreased tubular glucose reabsorption, resulting in glycosuria. (B) Insulin is inhibited by increased levels of estrogen. (C) Insulin is inhibited by increased levels of progesterone. (D) Human placental lactogen levels increase later in pregnancy. This hormonal antagonist reduces insulin's effectiveness, stimulates lipolysis, and increases the circulation of free fatty acids.



In the client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease, the nurse would anticipate the complication of bradycardia with occlusion of which coronary artery?

  1. Right coronary artery
  2. Left main coronary artery
  3. Circumflex coronary artery
  4. Left anterior descending coronary artery

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

(A) Sinus bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) heart block are usually a result of right coronary artery occlusion. The right coronary artery perfuses the sinoatrial and AV nodes in mostindividuals. (B) Occlusion of the left main coronary artery causes bundle branch blocks and premature ventricular contractions. (C) Occlusion of the circumflex artery does not cause bradycardia. (D) Sinus tachycardia occurs primarily with left anterior descending coronary artery occlusion because this form of occlusion impairs left ventricular function.



After 3 weeks of treatment, a severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better and starts interacting appropriately with other clients and staff. The nurse knows that this client has an increased risk for:

  1. Suicide
  2. Exacerbation of depressive symptoms
  3. Violence toward others
  4. Psychotic behavior

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

(A) When the severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better, it often indicates that the client has made the decision to kill himself or herself and has developed a plan to do so. (B) Improvement in behavior is not indicative of an exacerbation of depressive symptoms. (C) Thedepressed client has a tendency for self-violence, not violence toward others. (D) Depressive behavior is not always accompanied by psychotic behavior.



Diabetes during pregnancy requires tight metabolic control of glucose levels to prevent perinatal mortality. When evaluating the pregnant client, the nurse knows the recommended serum glucose range during pregnancy is:

  1. 70 mg/dL and 120 mg/dL
  2. 100 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL
  3. 40 mg/dL and 130 mg/dL
  4. 90 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

(A) The recommended range is 70­120 mg/dL to reduce the risk of perinatal mortality. (B, C, D) These levels are not recommended. The higher the blood glucose, the worse the prognosis for the fetus. Hypoglycemia can also have detrimental effects on the fetus.



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