Nokia 4A0-C01 Exam Prep
Nokia NRS II Composite Exam (Page 85 )

• A hypervisor allows multiple virtual machines to run on one physical server.
• Each VM can have its own operating system, so the customer can consolidate Windows, Linux, and Unix servers.
• A Type 2 hypervisor runs on a host operating system and can be deployed on local hardware, helping address data privacy and avoiding ongoing public-cloud charges.

• Containers share the host operating system’s kernel.
• They are well suited to consolidating applications, but they generally cannot independently run a mix of unrelated kernels such as Windows, Linux, and Unix on one host.

• Future costs — Only costs occurring in the future can be affected by the investment decision. Past costs are sunk and irrelevant.
• Incremental costs — These are additional costs caused by choosing the investment. They are relevant because they differ between alternatives.
• Cash flows — Capital investment decisions are based on future cash inflows and outflows, usually discounted to present value.

• Committed costs have already been agreed or incurred and generally cannot be changed by the decision.
• Unavoidable costs will arise regardless of which option is selected, so they do not affect the choice.

1. Wireless AP

1. Router

1. Firewall

1. Device placement

• Economy: Obtaining inputs at the lowest appropriate cost.
• Efficiency: Making the best use of resources, such as staff, money, and equipment.
• Effectiveness: Achieving the intended objectives or outcomes.

• Preparing and managing datasets
• Building and training machine-learning models
• Testing and evaluating models
• Deploying models as endpoints for predictions

• Build, measure, learn: Create something, assess real feedback or results, and adapt.
• Minimum viable product (MVP): Produce the smallest useful version to test assumptions and reduce uncertainty.
• Fail fast: Test ideas early so that unsuccessful approaches can be identified before significant time or cost is invested.

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• <apex:includeScript> is for JavaScript.
• <apex:includeStyle> is not a valid Visualforce component.
• <apex:require> is not the Visualforce tag used to load CSS.

• Periodic vulnerability assessments: Identify technical weaknesses but do not establish governance or ensure risks are managed.
• Established information security metrics: Help measure performance and report status, but measurement alone does not make governance effective.
• Advanced security technologies: Support security operations, but governance is primarily about direction, accountability, decision-making, and alignment with business objectives.

• Bronze: Raw ingested data
• Silver: Cleaned, validated, and transformed data
• Gold: Business-level data for analytics, dashboards, and reporting

• B: Não é preciso implantar o modelo em um endpoint do Amazon SageMaker, pois o Bedrock já oferece a infraestrutura de inferência.
• C: O SageMaker Model Registry é usado para gerenciar modelos no SageMaker, não é requisito para modelos customizados no Bedrock.
• D: Não existe uma etapa geral de “conceder acesso” ao modelo customizado como requisito principal de uso. O ponto essencial é adquirir o Provisioned Throughput.

• Honeypots: Deliberately vulnerable or attractive systems designed to lure attackers. Legitimate users should not access them, so activity on a honeypot is a strong indicator of compromise.
• DNS sinkholes: Redirect requests for known malicious domains to a controlled internal system instead of allowing the connection. This can identify infected hosts attempting to contact command-and-control infrastructure.

• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens; it protects data but does not primarily detect attackers.
• CI/CD: Automates software development and deployment processes.
• Threat modeling: Identifies potential threats and weaknesses before or during system design.
• Data obfuscation: Makes data harder to understand, but it is not an attacker-detection method.

• Third-party enterprise application with embedded AI: The provider manages most security controls. The customer mainly manages users, data, and configuration.
• Application using an existing third-party FM: The customer controls the application and its inputs/outputs, but the provider controls the underlying model and infrastructure.
• Fine-tuning a third-party FM: The customer has additional responsibility for training data, data protection, and model behavior, but still depends on the provider’s base model and platform.
• Building and training a model from scratch: The customer controls the model, training data, application, deployment, and many security safeguards. This creates the greatest security ownership.

• Data only needs to be current at 7 AM each day, so scheduled refresh is sufficient.
• Import mode provides the fastest report interaction because data is stored in Power BI’s in-memory engine.
• It supports row-level security (RLS), including the USERNAME() filter.
• You can limit the imported data to the current year and previous three years to reduce model size.
• DirectQuery would generally provide slower visual response times and is unnecessary here.
• Dual is mainly useful in composite models where some tables use DirectQuery and others use Import. That is not required by this scenario.
• Live connection is not appropriate because you are creating the semantic model.

• B — Data source settings in Power BI Desktop:

• D — Formula bar in Power Query Editor:

m 
  Excel.Workbook(File.Contents("new path"))

• E — Advanced Editor in Power Query Editor:

• A: Dataset settings in the Power BI service mainly handle credentials and gateway settings, not changing the local file path embedded in the PBIX.
• C: Current File data-load settings control refresh/load behavior, not the source location.

• B. Deploy to a SageMaker endpoint: This is needed for SageMaker-hosted models, not for a model intended to be used directly in Amazon Bedrock.
• C. Register with SageMaker Model Registry: SageMaker Model Registry is unrelated to invoking custom models in Bedrock.
• D. Grant access in Bedrock: Access permissions may be necessary, but they do not replace the required provisioned capacity.

• A: Not expanding would increase its dependence.
• B: More business from the same corporation would make dependence worse.
• D: Passing work to other minority businesses does not solve its own dependence.
• E: The passage does not suggest that it can force or influence the corporation to give work to others.

Statement 1 — Correct

Statement 2 — Correct

• Owner, Contributor, and Network Contributor provide sufficient management permissions.
• Reader can view Traffic Analytics data but cannot enable or configure it.

• A — Tables
• B — Named file formats
• C — Schemas
• E — Databases

Why these are correct

• Tables: Can be cloned using CREATE TABLE ... CLONE. The clone initially uses zero-copy cloning, so storage is shared until changes are made.
• Named file formats: Can be cloned as database objects, preserving the file-format definition.
• Schemas: A schema and its eligible objects can be cloned.
• Databases: A database and its eligible schemas and objects can be cloned.

Why the others are incorrect

• Shares: A share is an account-level data-sharing object, not a normal cloneable database object.
• Users: Users are security principals and cannot be cloned with CLONE.

1. insert con; ? 1
2. Database.setSavepoint(); ? 2
3. update con; ? 3
4. Database.rollback(sp_admin); ? 4

• Code signing: Verifies the software’s authenticity and integrity; it does not hide the source code or prevent reverse engineering.
• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with tokens, mainly for protecting data such as payment information—not software logic.
• Blockchain: Provides a tamper-resistant record of transactions or data; it does not protect compiled code from analysis.

• The requirement is to obtain an assessment of the Azure environment’s design.
• The proposed solution is the Premier support plan.
• Premier can provide this type of guidance, but it is a higher-tier, more expensive option.
• The question specifically says to keep costs to a minimum. A lower tier—typically Professional Direct in the support-plan model used by this question—provides architectural/design guidance.

• Endpoint Manager: manages hosts and sensor-related settings.
• Falcon Investigator: supports investigation and analysis, but does not necessarily grant RTR access.
• Remediation Manager: handles remediation-related actions rather than interactive host access.

• VLAN 10 for data
• VLAN 20 for voice

• A: Describes physical trunking or logical switch ports, not an SVI.
• B: An SVI can provide management access, but that is only one use—not the best description here.
• D: SVI use is not related to running out of physical ports.

• Firewall
• Intrusion prevention and detection
• Antivirus or antimalware
• Web and email filtering
• Virtual private networking (VPN)
• Sometimes content filtering and centralized reporting

• File is shared externally ? Access level

• File is labeled “Internal only” ? Sensitivity label

• Dataset file: Use Import mode. Excel files are imported into Power BI, and the two Sales tables can be combined with Power Query.
• Report file: Use a live connection to the published dataset. This keeps the report separate from the dataset and avoids importing the data again.

• Report file: DirectQuery/live connection
• Dataset file: Import

• Tracking who accessed or changed customer information
• Detecting unauthorized activity
• Supporting accountability and investigations
• Providing evidence for compliance and incident response

• Single sign-on not enabled: SSO improves convenience and centralized authentication, but it is not essential for access control.
• Complex passwords not required: This weakens authentication, but other controls may reduce the risk.
• Security baseline not consistently applied: A concern, but it is less specific and less immediately damaging than having no activity records at all.

• sn_si_admin is an SIR administrator role.
• The prefix helps prevent naming conflicts between applications.
• It does not refer to a “Secure Identity token” or an instance security check.

• Active remediation actions role in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint

• Security Reader role in Azure AD/Entra ID

• Security Administrator is broader than necessary because it grants extensive security-management permissions, violating least privilege.
• Compliance Data Administrator is intended for compliance data management, not Defender for Endpoint remediation approvals.

• SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): Commonly used for enterprise SSO between an identity provider and cloud applications. It sends signed authentication assertions to the service provider.
• RADIUS: Primarily used for centralized authentication to network devices, VPNs, and wireless networks.
• EAP: An authentication framework commonly used with network access technologies; it is not typically the SSO protocol for SaaS applications.
• OpenID: Related to identity authentication, but traditional enterprise SSO questions involving cloud applications generally expect SAML. OpenID Connect is a newer authentication layer built on OAuth 2.0.

1. The original app version exists.
2. You create and publish a new version, so there are now two versions.
3. When you restore the previous version, Power Apps does not delete or overwrite the newer version. Instead, it creates another version based on the restored one.

• Original version
• Newly created and published version
• New version created by the restore operation

• Reconnaissance: Gathering information about the target.
• Weaponization: Creating or combining a malicious payload with a delivery method.
• Delivery: Sending the payload, such as through phishing.
• Exploitation: Triggering a vulnerability or weakness to gain execution or access.

• True positive: The scan reports a vulnerability that really exists.
• False positive: The scan reports a vulnerability that does not exist.
• True negative: The scan correctly reports no vulnerability.
• False negative: The scan fails to detect a vulnerability that is actually present.

• User1 (user1@contoso.com) — This is an external guest in the Fabrikam tenant. Assuming the guest uses email one-time passcode authentication, Azure AD emails a passcode to user1@contoso.com.
• User2 (user2@outlook.com) — An Outlook.com address can authenticate with a Microsoft account, so Azure AD uses that account’s authentication rather than sending an email OTP. The fact that User2 has never accessed Fabrikam resources does not by itself trigger OTP.
• User3 (user3@fabrikam.com) — This is an internal Fabrikam user, so the user signs in with the organization’s normal credentials and does not receive a guest OTP.

• Customer information must not be revealed ? PII Detection
• Malicious instructions embedded in images/documents must be blocked ? Prompt Shields

• If the question allows multiple selections, choose PII Detection and Prompt Shields.
• If it requires one selection specifically for the image-based threat, choose Prompt Shields.

• Azure Machine Learning Studio is designed to build, test, train, and deploy machine-learning models, including predictive analytics.
• Azure Cosmos DB is a globally distributed NoSQL database. It can store data used by an AI solution, but it is not the primary service for developing and deploying predictive models.
• Therefore, the appropriate recommendation is Azure Machine Learning Studio, as shown in Question 15.

• Due diligence: Investigating and evaluating a third party before entering into or continuing a business relationship.
• Attestation: An independent party provides assurance about an organization’s claims or controls. A SOC 2 examination is an example of an attestation engagement, but the analyst requesting and reviewing the report is performing due diligence.
• Internal audit: Reviews the organization’s own internal controls.
• Penetration testing: Actively tests systems for exploitable vulnerabilities.

• Set credit quotas for an account or individual virtual warehouses.
• Define monitoring intervals.
• Trigger actions when usage reaches thresholds, such as sending notifications or suspending a warehouse.
• Help control unexpected warehouse spending.

• Account Usage: Provides historical usage and billing data; it does not enforce credit limits.
• Warehouse Limit Parameter: Not the Snowflake object used for account-wide credit controls.
• Credit Consumption Tracker: Not a standard Snowflake object.

• A — Correct: Identify the data required by Salesforce, its dependencies, and how it should be validated. Verification scripts help confirm record counts, relationships, field mappings, and data integrity after migration.
• D — Correct: Use a full sandbox and perform trial migrations using realistic—or appropriately masked—legacy data. This exposes transformation, volume, dependency, and integration issues before production cutover.
• B — Less appropriate: Phased user migration and parallel operation primarily address user adoption and rollout risk, not the technical risks of data migration.
• C — Less appropriate: Although sandbox testing and integration testing are valuable, the option emphasizes test-data generation rather than validating the migration with representative legacy data. “A full sandbox for all systems” may also be impractical.

• 10 minutes have elapsed, or
• 20 MB of accounting data has accumulated

• Architects design overall Splunk infrastructure and data strategy.
• Administrators manage configuration, access, and system operations.
• Knowledge Managers create and maintain knowledge objects such as data models, field extractions, and event types. They may support pivots, but they are not the primary users of them.

• Menerjemahkan soal ke bahasa Indonesia.
• Menyebutkan jawaban yang benar.
• Menjelaskan alasan jawaban tersebut.
• Memberi tahu jika kunci jawaban yang tersedia tampaknya keliru.
• Menjelaskan istilah teknis penting dalam soal.

• Suspended an operator who refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Paid another operator a bonus for using it.
• Prioritised short-term productivity over employee safety.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — The factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• A. IDS attack signatures: Detects suspicious network activity, but is not primarily designed to scan uploaded files for malware.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability; it does not inspect files for threats.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection, but its primary role is not malware scanning of uploaded documents.

• Microsoft Purview portal: Create and manage sensitivity labels and configure support for sensitivity labels used with Office files in SharePoint and OneDrive.
• SharePoint admin center: Primarily manages SharePoint settings. Older guidance and PowerShell procedures used SharePoint tenant configuration, which can make this question confusing.
• IRM: Concerns Information Rights Management and is a separate protection mechanism; it should not be used to identify the portal for configuring Microsoft Purview sensitivity labels.

• Un AG puede tener réplicas en Windows y Linux desde SQL Server 2017; por tanto, una réplica Windows y otra Linux es posible.
• Sin embargo, las réplicas de un AG deben utilizar normalmente la misma versión principal de SQL Server. Una instancia SQL Server 2017 no puede tener directamente una réplica secundaria SQL Server 2019 como configuración normal y permanente.
• En tu escenario, SQL Server 2017 en Windows y SQL Server 2019 en Linux no se pueden añadir directamente como réplicas equivalentes de AG1. Primero habría que realizar un proceso de actualización/migración compatible, por ejemplo mediante una actualización gradual o una tecnología de migración como log shipping o distributed availability groups, según el diseño.

• Tipo de clúster y mecanismo de quorum.
• Failover normalmente manual en configuraciones multiplataforma.
• Edición y características compatibles.
• Configuración de endpoints y permisos.
• Limitaciones específicas de SQL Server en Linux.

• Access controls — ensuring only authorized users can access it.
• Encryption — protecting the data if it is intercepted or exposed.

• Deterrent control: The signs warning people they may be filmed discourage unauthorized or malicious behavior. They may prevent incidents by influencing behavior, but their primary purpose is to deter.
• Detective control: The CCTV system monitors and records activity so security personnel can identify suspicious or unauthorized actions.

• Preventive: Blocks or prevents an incident, such as a lock or access-control system.
• Corrective: Fixes or restores systems after an incident.
• Directive: Tells people what they must do, typically through policies or procedures.
• Compensating: Provides an alternative control when the preferred control cannot be used.