PEOPLECERT MOR Exam Actual Questions
Management of Risk Foundation (MOR) (Page 9 )

• MOR health checks assess how risk management is implemented and embedded, and identify improvements and ROI opportunities.
• They’re about process health, governance, and capability, not about listing or snapshotting the actual risks themselves.

• Identify areas for improvement — yes; a health check should highlight gaps.
• Help gain maximum value from investment in risk management — yes; it supports value realization.
• Provide a snapshot of the current status of identified risks — not the primary goal; risk status is typically captured in risk registers/reports, not the health of the risk management process.
• Review how well risk management practices have been embedded — yes; a core objective.

• What wipe does: A factory reset that erases all data, apps, and settings and returns the device to the OOBE. It removes the device from management and resets identity.
• Why not for this scenario: The goal is to repurpose the same device to a new user with Autopilot. Autopilot Reset keeps the device’s Azure AD/Intune identity and re-provisions the device for the next user without a full wipe.
• What Autopilot Reset does: Removes user data and apps but preserves device identity and management connection, then reapplies the Autopilot provisioning for the next user.
• When you’d use wipe instead: If you’re selling or permanently discarding the device, or you truly want to scrub all traces and start fresh without re-enrolling.

• Source: on-premises SQL Server Database1
• Destination: Fabric Warehouse Warehouse1
• Connectivity: on-premises data gateway

• Dataflow Gen1: Primarily for Power Query transformations and isn’t the best Fabric-native choice for this copy operation.
• KQL queryset: Queries data; it does not orchestrate copying from SQL Server.
• Notebook: Could perform custom code-based movement, but it is unnecessary and less direct than a pipeline.

• The target API uses HTTPS, so Mule must validate the server’s TLS certificate.
• The TLS configuration is set to None, meaning no custom truststore is configured.
• Mule therefore uses the JRE’s default truststore to determine whether the target certificate is trusted.
• If the issuing CA certificate is in that truststore, the TLS handshake can succeed.
• If it is absent—or the certificate is otherwise invalid—the request fails with a TLS/handshake error.

• Disabling GPS: Affects location services, not email connectivity.
• Configuring 4G usage only: Does not enable international data access and could prevent connectivity if 4G is unavailable.
• Connecting using a hotspot: Could provide data, but it is not the most direct solution and depends on another network or device.

• Answer: S3 Inventory report.

• Why: The S3 Inventory report provides a scheduled listing of objects within a bucket, including metadata about each object. When you configure it to include object tagging, you can see tags for each object, and the object keys (which reflect prefixes) and bucket scope are captured in the report. This makes it suitable for auditing and tracking “tags, buckets, and prefixes” across S3 objects.

• What the other options do (not suitable for this purpose):

• Tip: If you need tags in the report, enable the inventory option to include object tagging in the configuration.

Simple explanation

• The Azure VPN gateway to connect to
• Authentication settings
• Routes for networks that the client can access

• Correct answer: C — The model is deployed at UK border checkpoints.

• The EU AI Act applies to AI systems used within the EU or by entities established in the EU. So:

• The correct answer is D: All of the above.

• Snowflake Web Interface (UI): You can create and manage Virtual Warehouses from the UI (resize, suspend/resume settings, etc.).
• SQL commands: You can create and alter warehouses with DDL like CREATE WAREHOUSE and ALTER WAREHOUSE.
• Data integration tools: ETL/ELT tools can create/manage warehouses by connecting to Snowflake and issuing the appropriate commands or using their config to specify a warehouse.

• Post-Incident Review (A) is the after-action step used to capture lessons learned, identify process gaps, and drive improvements across the incident response lifecycle. This directly supports process maturity and a stronger security posture.
• Incident Analysis (D) focuses on investigating root causes during/after an incident, which is important but more of a diagnostic activity than a standalone baseline improvement to maturity.
• Fast Eradication (B) and Incident Containment (C) are tactical actions aimed at stopping the incident, not on maturing the process.

• Question 142: Security governance is MOST associated with which IT infrastructure component? Network / Application / Platform / Process
• Answer: D. Process

• Security governance is about how decisions are made, accountability, and oversight to ensure security objectives align with business goals. These are implemented through governance processes (policy development, risk management, assurance, monitoring, escalation, etc.).
• The other options (Network, Application, Platform) are concrete IT components; governance affects them, but it’s exercised primarily through the processes that govern how those components are managed and controlled.

• In governance-related questions, focus on the decision-making, accountability, and control processes rather than the underlying technology components.

powershell 
Get-AzureVM -ServiceName <service-name> -Name <vm-name> | 
  Set-AzureStaticVNetIP -IPAddress <private-ip> | 
  Update-AzureVM

• New-AzureRMVMConfig configures VM settings but does not itself assign the static IP.
• Set-AzureSubnet is not the appropriate cmdlet for assigning a VM’s private IP.
• The Azure portal option mentioned in the question was not the intended method for this older deployment model.
• Changing settings in Windows Network and Sharing Center is incorrect because Azure assigns the IP through the VM’s virtual network interface; manually configuring it inside the guest can cause conflicts.

• Drop violating frames
• Log or alert on the violation
• Shut down or restrict the port

• Load balancer: Distributes application traffic; it does not control switch MAC learning.
• IPS: May detect some network attacks but is not the primary control for switch MAC-table exhaustion.
• NGFW: Protects traffic crossing network boundaries, while MAC flooding occurs at the switching/LAN layer.

• Transact-SQL (T-SQL) is used to query relational data in Azure SQL Database, not telemetry data from monitoring services.
• To analyze monitoring data from Azure SQL Database Intelligent Insights and Azure Application Insights, you should use the Kusto Query Language (KQL) in Azure Monitor Logs/Log Analytics (and in Application Insights Analytics).
• Using KQL lets you query telemetry tables such as requests, dependencies, pageViews, and customEvents (from App Insights) and any integrated monitoring data you’ve ingested into Log Analytics.

• Ensure Intelligent Insights and Application Insights data is available in a Log Analytics workspace or accessible via Application Insights Analytics.
• Go to Azure Monitor > Logs (or Application Insights > Analytics) and write KQL queries, e.g.:

• Answer: B — Improve employee training and awareness

• Why this is correct:

• Why the other options are less effective here:

• Quick practical note:

• The standard Enterprise Architecture domains are: Business, Data, Application, Technology (BDAT).

• A: Business, strategy, application and technology — includes business and application/tech but uses “strategy” instead of data.
• B: Zachman, TOGAF, Cobit, and Heath architectures — names frameworks, not domains.
• C: Business, data, infrastructure and technology — has business, data, and technology; lacks a distinct application domain (uses “infrastructure” instead).
• D: Process, database, software and technology — covers data (database), application (software), and technology, but omits business.

• The four BDAT domains (business, data, application, technology) is the conventional model you should study.
• None of the options perfectly lists all four BDAT domains. The closest are C (if you map infrastructure to technology) and D (data/application/technology but no business).

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity and usually alerts rather than directly scanning and blocking uploaded files.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and some malicious requests. It is not primarily a PDF-malware scanning solution.

• Ensure that only users who manage the production environment sign in to the Azure portal from a hybrid Entra-joined device and authenticate with MFA.

• Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection (Identity Protection) to enforce MFA enrollment:

• Update the existing Capolicy1 (a Conditional Access policy):

• Identity Protection MFA registration policy ensures users are enrolled in MFA (Box 1 choice).
• CA policy Capolicy1 with aGrant control of “Require MFA” enforces MFA during sign-in (Box 2 choice).
• Both work together with the hybrid-joined device requirement to satisfy the authentication/authorization rules.

• Apply the MFA registration policy to the production-management users.
• Apply the MFA grant to Capolicy1 for those same users/groups.

• Goal: serving a static website globally with minimal latency.
• Why C works: CloudFront is a Content Delivery Network (CDN) that caches content at many edge locations around the world. When users request the site, CloudFront serves cached copies from the nearest edge location, greatly reducing latency. It also reduces load on your EC2 origin by handling many requests at the edge.
• Why the other options aren’t as good:

• Multiple AWS accounts: Create a separate account for each department or workload. This provides clear isolation and makes it easier to track each department’s usage and costs for chargeback.
• Consolidated billing: AWS Organizations can combine billing for multiple accounts into one central payer account. The company can still view costs by account while managing payment centrally.

• Placement groups: Control how EC2 instances are physically placed for networking or performance; they do not provide departmental billing separation.
• Edge locations: Infrastructure used by services such as Amazon CloudFront; unrelated to chargeback.
• AWS Config: Records and evaluates resource configurations and compliance; it is not a billing-separation mechanism.

• The stage has a default file format defined (e.g., when you create the stage with FILE_FORMAT = (...)), and Snowflake will use that default.

• You use a named file format attached to the stage, or you specify an inline format in the COPY command, e.g., COPY INTO my_table FROM @my_stage FILE_FORMAT = (TYPE = 'CSV');

• Use a stage default: omit FILE_FORMAT in COPY.
• Or rely on a named/inline format: specify FILE_FORMAT in COPY or set a format on the stage.

• Interactive development and exploration
• Small datasets
• Lightweight transformations or testing
• Avoiding the overhead and cost of multiple workers

• Automated reports: Jobs may benefit from job clusters or SQL warehouses.
• Working with SQL in Databricks SQL: Databricks SQL warehouses are the relevant compute option.
• Automatically scaling for larger data: A multi-node cluster with autoscaling is more suitable.
• Large amounts of data: Distributed worker nodes are generally needed.

• Recovery procedures actually work
• Recovery time and recovery point objectives can be met
• Staff understand their responsibilities
• Contact details, dependencies, and technical configurations are accurate
• Gaps or conflicts exist in the plan

• Not version-controlled: Creates a risk of using an outdated copy, but the plan might still be effective.
• Contact information needs updating: This is a specific weakness that can be corrected, often identified during testing.
• Not approved by senior management: Approval is important for authority and resource commitment, but an untested plan presents the most direct risk that recovery will fail when needed.

• Correct answer: enable SLAAC on an interface (C)

• Why the other options are not correct:

• Coordinate and manage the assessment team
• Assign assessment activities
• Direct interviews, examinations, and tests
• Ensure the assessment follows the CAP

• Answer key: Lead Assessor — likely wrong
• CAP-based answer: C3PAO

• Answer: No.

• Why:

• If you need such an assessment while controlling costs, you’d generally pursue a paid MCS engagement or another option outside of the basic Premier entitlement.

• View/inspect configuration: Possible.
• Modify the installed application or its S-Controls: Typically restricted in a test-drive org.

• Honeypots: Decoy systems or services designed to attract attackers. Legitimate users should not access them, so activity on a honeypot is a strong indicator of unauthorized activity. Security teams can also observe attacker behavior.

• DNS sinkhole: Redirects requests for known malicious domains to a controlled internal server or blocks them. If an infected workstation attempts to contact command-and-control infrastructure, the sinkhole records the request and helps identify the compromised device.

• Tokenization: Protects sensitive data by replacing it with tokens.
• CI/CD: Automates software development and deployment.
• Threat modeling: Identifies potential risks before or during system design.
• Data obfuscation: Makes data harder to understand, but does not detect intruders.

• The explanation states that Traffic Analytics can be enabled by a user with one of these subscription-level roles:

• Question 34 — Network Contributor: Yes
• Question 35 — Owner: Yes
• Question 36 — Reader: Yes, according to the stated explanation and documentation

• Context: You’re configuring a Windows Autopilot deployment profile (Profile1) for Windows 11 devices. The hotspot asks you to pick the correct behavior for two statements based on the profile’s settings.

• Box 1: “can modify the desktop settings only for themselves”

• Box 2: “Cortana settings” with options like computer name, keyboard layout, etc.

• Review the risk register.
• Use the previously defined risk response plan, such as assigning a backup resource, reprioritizing work, or using another qualified engineer.
• Implement the response promptly because the task is on the critical path.

• B: Revising the schedule without first applying the planned response may be premature.
• C: Excluding a required task could compromise the project’s objectives and requirements.
• D: Updating the risk and lessons learned records is appropriate, but it should happen after managing the immediate issue, not as the next primary action.

• Correct answer: D) Microservices using API

• Why:

• Permanent table (E): Correct. A dropped permanent table can be restored with UNDROP TABLE during its Time Travel retention period. Permanent tables also have Fail-safe protection.
• Transient table: It can also generally be restored during its shorter Time Travel period, although it has no Fail-safe. Therefore, excluding it makes the question questionable.
• Temporary table: Usually cannot be recovered after it is dropped; its lifecycle is limited to the session.
• Materialized view (D): The answer key treats it as recoverable, but recovery behavior depends on the specific Snowflake object/version capabilities. It should not be confused with an ordinary view.

• A. Extranet
• B. VLAN
• C. Intranet
• D. VPN

• Self-signed certificate: Causes a certificate warning, not incorrect IP resolution.
• Nameserver record: A DNS record problem would typically affect multiple users, not just one.
• IP helper: Relays DHCP or other broadcast traffic between networks; it does not control website name resolution.

• Problème: le système d’alertes signale des fluctuations tout en manquant les activités qui restent anormalement constantes sur une période longue. Il faut donc un scénario qui capte les anomalies qui se maintiennent dans le temps plutôt que les pics ponctuels.
• Peer: permet de comparer un client à ses pairs; utile pour repérer des écarts relatifs, mais ne cible pas nécessairement les motifs d’anomalie persistante sur plusieurs périodes.
• Revenus mapping: relie les transactions à des sources ou flux de revenus; utile pour l’analyse des fonds, mais pas directement pour détecter une anomalie longue durée.
• Below-the-line: conçu pour détecter des activités qui passent en dessous des seuils habituels ou qui demeurent anormales sur une longue période, comblant ainsi la faiblesse des alertes à long terme.

• Correct answer: A
• What this is saying: You need to write a Transact-SQL query that uses REGEXP_SUBSTR to extract the ID from MessageText, and you should apply STRING_ESCAPE(MessageText, 'json') before calling REGEXP_SUBSTR.

• MessageText may contain JSON characters (quotes, backslashes, etc.). Escaping the JSON content first ensures the string you pass to the regex is safe and won’t confuse the regex engine.
• The pattern you apply with REGEXP_SUBSTR would then extract the first substring that matches your ID pattern from the (escaped) text.

• Example (conceptual):

• The question implies REGEXP_SUBSTR is available in this environment; some SQL Server and Fabric contexts don’t expose it natively in all versions. If REGEXP_SUBSTR isn’t available, you’d need an alternative approach (e.g., using built-in regex-like capabilities or CLR/UDFs).
• If you need the ID specifically from the first paragraph, you might first isolate the first paragraph and then apply REGEXP_SUBSTR, or compose a single pattern that anchors to the first paragraph.

• User1 can sign in because the account is cloud-only. It does not depend on the on-premises domain.
• User3 can sign in because the account uses Password Hash Synchronization (PHS). Azure AD has a synchronized password hash and can validate the sign-in even when connectivity to on-premises Active Directory is unavailable.
• User2 cannot sign in because the account relies on Pass-through Authentication (PTA). PTA sends the authentication request to an on-premises PTA agent, which must contact a domain controller. With the internet connection from on-premises lost, that validation cannot occur.

• Answer: D) Shadow IT

• Why: Shadow IT is when employees use unsanctioned tools or bypass IT controls (like the VPN) to access services, often without IT oversight. It’s an internal behavior, not an external attacker’s activity.

• Not these:

• Quick note: This creates risk due to lack of visibility and control. Mitigations include a defined approved-tools list, enforcing VPN usage, device management, and continuous monitoring.

• Correct answer: C) After installing ES on the search head(s) and running the distributed configuration management tool.

• ES requires the Splunk_TA_ForIndexes.spl add-on on indexers to apply index-time configurations. It should be deployed via the distributed configuration management (DCM) flow after ES is installed on the search heads, so the indexers receive the proper configuration in a controlled, versioned bundle.

• A) Deploying when adding apps to the deployment server isn’t the ES-specific order; it bypasses the ES-instantiated workflow.
• B) Installing Splunk_TA_ForIndexes.spl first isn’t the recommended order; ES needs to be installed on the search heads first.
• D) It isn’t limited to indexer cluster sites or cluster master commands; the standard flow uses DCM to push the TA to indexers in general.

• In Microsoft Entra (Azure AD), admin roles can be scoped to either the entire directory (tenant) or to an Administrative Unit (AU). To assign a role at an AU scope, the user must be a member of that AU.

• Roles in question: Security Administrator and User Administrator can be scoped either to the Directory or to a specific AU.

• User1 is a member of AU1. Therefore, User1 can be assigned either at the AU scope (AU1) or at the Directory scope (global).

• User2 is not a member of AU1. Therefore, User2 cannot be assigned at the AU scope; the valid scope for User2 is only the Directory scope.

• User1: can be assigned at AU1 and at Directory scopes.
• User2: can be assigned only at the Directory scope.

• A) MTU mismatch: OSPF neighbors must exchange Hello packets with a compatible MTU. If MTUs differ, the neighbor conversation fails and the adjacency cannot become Full.

• B) Incorrect subnet mask: Routers must be in the same IP subnet on the connected link to form a neighbor relationship. A subnet mismatch prevents Hello packets from being considered valid on the same network.

• D) Area ID not the same: Neighbors must share the same Area ID. A mismatch stops adjacency from forming beyond the 2-Way state.

• E) Different metric set on each end of the link: Cost differences do not prevent OSPF adjacency; they affect routing decisions, not neighbor formation.
• F) Router ID not defined: OSPF can auto-choose a router ID; an undefined ID is not a prerequisite for adjacency to reach Full.

• A assigned without var becomes a global variable (in non-strict mode). So after myFunction(), a = 5 is accessible.
• b is declared with var inside the function, so it’s local to that function (function-scoped). It’s not defined in the outer (global) scope.

• console.log(a) prints 5.
• console.log(b) throws a ReferenceError: b is not defined.

• Assign a Teams license to a user — Licenses are assigned through the Microsoft 365 admin center, Microsoft Entra ID, or PowerShell.
• Deploy the Teams client — The Teams admin center manages Teams policies and apps, but it is not the primary tool for deploying the desktop client.
• Prevent users from creating teams — Team creation depends on controlling the creation of Microsoft 365 groups, generally configured through Microsoft Entra ID and PowerShell rather than directly in the Teams admin center.

• Side loading means installing software from sources outside official or trusted repositories.
• This process can bring in malicious payloads because the installed software hasn’t been vetted. A rootkit is a type of malware that hides its presence and maintains privileged access, making it a prime risk when using untrusted sources.
• Why not the other options:

• Only install apps from trusted sources; verify signatures.
• Use application whitelisting and security controls to block sideloading.
• Keep systems updated and use anti-malware tools capable of detecting rootkits.

• The correct option is A: Data architecture.

• Why: In the AWS CAF, the Platform perspective covers the technical foundation and architecture that enable cloud workloads to run reliably and efficiently. This includes how data is modeled, stored, and accessed across the enterprise—the core of data architecture.

• Quick mapping for the other options:

• Numerical flexibility: Adjusting the number of employees, such as using temporary, part-time or contract staff.
• Temporal flexibility: Varying when employees work, such as through flexitime, overtime or different working hours.
• Shift system flexibility: Changing work patterns or shift arrangements; it is not specifically about moving between tasks.

• According to the provided answer key, the four options are: Upload File, User Criteria, HR Profiles, HR Criteria (options B, D, F, G).

• Upload File: Filter by a file you upload (e.g., CSV) that provides data for bulk case creation.
• User Criteria: Filter by criteria related to users (e.g., role, department) to select target users.
• HR Profiles: Filter by HR profile data associated with users.
• HR Criteria: Filter by HR-related criteria or attributes.

• The diagnostic output shows that the protocol is TCP (proto=6) and the session state is 2.
• In FortiGate’s session output, state=2 maps to SYN_SENT. This means the TCP SYN has been sent but the handshake hasn’t completed yet.
• Therefore, the session is not ESTABLISHED, FIN/ACK-related states, or other states; it’s in SYN_SENT.