Salesforce DEX-450 Exam Prep
Programmatic Development using Apex and Visualforce in Lightning Experience (Page 20 )

• B — Reviewing the strategy: Usually performed by a security steering committee or other governance body.
• C — Communicating the strategy: The security manager may help communicate it, but communication is not the primary governance responsibility tested here.
• D — Approving the strategy: Approval belongs to executive management or the appropriate governing authority, not the person who develops it.

• Matching hashes suggest the file has not changed.
• Different hashes indicate that the file was modified, whether authorized or unauthorized.

• Backup: Helps recover the previous version but does not identify or stop unauthorized changes.
• File labels: Classify or mark files; they do not verify integrity.
• Security audit: May discover weaknesses or improper changes, but is periodic and not a direct technical integrity control.

• Load balancer: Distributes application traffic; it does not protect switch MAC tables.
• IPS: May detect some attack traffic, but it is not the primary control for switch-port MAC learning.
• NGFW: Protects at network boundaries but does not directly limit MAC addresses learned on access ports.

• Two-part tariff pricing: $10 per unit
• Dual pricing: $20 per unit

Two-part tariff pricing

Dual pricing

• Division X, the seller, is credited with the market price: \(\$20\)
• Division Y, the buyer, is charged the marginal cost: \(\$10\)

• Accept: Acknowledges the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Shifts the risk or financial impact to another party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reduces the likelihood or impact through controls like patching, MFA, or segmentation.
• Avoid: Eliminates the activity that creates the risk.

• Disaster recovery backups
• Long-term backup retention
• Data archiving that still needs occasional access

• Multi-Regional Storage: Intended for frequently accessed data needing broad geographic availability; it costs more.
• Regional Storage: Suitable for frequently accessed data within one region.
• Nearline Storage: Intended for data accessed roughly once per month, such as monthly backups.
• Coldline Storage: Better fit for backups accessed only during a disaster or occasional recovery event.

• A — Use a custom controller: An Apex class can contain the page’s logic.
• C — Use a standard controller with extensions: The standard controller provides basic CRUD behavior, while an extension adds custom logic.
• E — Use a standard controller: Useful when the page works mainly with one Salesforce object and needs standard functionality.

• A page with no controller for static or controller-free content.
• A custom controller with extensions; extensions are not limited only to standard controllers.

• Espionage: Stealing information for intelligence or competitive purposes.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: An attack sponsored or conducted by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or methods used to access organizational resources.

• 16GB RAM: A 64-bit OS is needed to use more than roughly 4GB effectively, but RAM capacity does not prove the CPU supports 64-bit operation.
• 500GB HDD: Storage capacity has no bearing on OS architecture.
• 1Gbps Ethernet: Network speed is unrelated to CPU architecture.

1. Wireless AP

1. Router

1. Firewall

1. Device placement

• Deterministic approve/reject results
• Strict adherence to predefined rules
• Consistent, reproducible outcomes
• Auditability and regulatory compliance

• The servers run different operating systems: Windows, Linux, and Unix.
• Containers generally share the host operating system’s kernel, so they cannot normally run workloads requiring unrelated kernels, such as Windows and Linux, on the same Linux host.
• A hypervisor can create separate virtual machines, allowing each VM to run its own guest OS.
• A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of a host operating system and can support multiple guest operating systems.

• A — Correct: Identify the data required by Salesforce, its dependencies, and how it should be validated. Verification scripts help confirm record counts, relationships, field mappings, and data integrity after migration.
• D — Correct: Use a full sandbox and perform trial migrations using realistic—or appropriately masked—legacy data. This exposes transformation, volume, dependency, and integration issues before production cutover.
• B — Less appropriate: Phased user migration and parallel operation primarily address user adoption and rollout risk, not the technical risks of data migration.
• C — Less appropriate: Although sandbox testing and integration testing are valuable, the option emphasizes test-data generation rather than validating the migration with representative legacy data. “A full sandbox for all systems” may also be impractical.

• Training or coaching
• Mentoring
• Additional support or resources
• Targeted performance improvement plans

• A: Recognition may be appropriate, but awards do not address identified gaps.
• C: Rotating schedules does not necessarily improve the specific competencies that are missing.
• D: Assessment results should be handled sensitively, but keeping them entirely private prevents useful feedback and development discussions.

• Base table — the table containing common inherited fields
• Parent table — the table directly extended by the child
• Other tables in the hierarchy

• Customer information must not be revealed ? PII Detection
• Malicious instructions embedded in images/documents must be blocked ? Prompt Shields

• If the question allows multiple selections, choose PII Detection and Prompt Shields.
• If it requires one selection specifically for the image-based threat, choose Prompt Shields.

• How quickly the vendor must respond to incidents or requests
• Availability or uptime requirements
• Resolution time targets
• Performance expectations and penalties for failing to meet them

• SOW (Statement of Work): Describes the work, deliverables, scope, and schedule.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Documents an agreement in which parties commit to specific responsibilities.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a general intention to cooperate; it may not be legally binding.

• The servers are powered on.
• The network is functioning.
• Devices can still reach the server network.

• ARP poisoning: Redirects or intercepts local network traffic; it usually affects communication paths rather than overwhelming a service.
• Jamming: Disrupts wireless or radio signals. It would not fit a system that remains accessible from devices on the server network.
• Kerberoasting: Attempts to crack service-account credentials from Kerberos tickets; it does not normally cause an immediate outage.

• Amazon EC2 instances — ???????? ?? ?? ??????? CPU, memory ??? instance size ???????? ???????
• AWS Lambda functions — memory configuration ?????????? ???????
• Amazon EBS volumes — volume type ?? size optimize ???? ???????
• ??????? ECS workloads — resource configuration ? cost optimization-?? ???????

• Memory ? compute usage ?????????? ???? custom code ????? ???? development ? maintenance ??????
• Cost allocation tags ???? ????? ??? ?????? ???? ??????? ???; inefficient resource ??????? ?? recommendation ???? ???
• CloudTrail resource ???? ?? API activity ??????, resource utilization ????

• Ease of exploitation
• Required privileges
• User interaction
• Impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability

• CVE: Identifies and names a specific publicly known vulnerability; it does not measure severity.
• OSINT: Refers to intelligence gathered from publicly available sources.
• SOAR: Automates and coordinates security operations, such as alert response and playbooks.

• Static IP address: Not needed if the workstation already has network connectivity.
• Subnet mask: Incorrect subnetting would usually prevent local communication, including pinging the server.
• Default gateway: Primarily affects communication outside the local network; it does not normally prevent finding an internal domain controller.

• Restarting the device: may fix software problems, but not a directional connection issue.
• Swollen battery: is a safety concern, but would not typically cause recognition only in one orientation.
• Failing cable: possible in general, but less likely because it works on other similar devices.
• Dirty or damaged port: best matches the symptoms. Inspect and carefully clean the port, or have it serviced if damaged.

• Monitoring: Detects activity but does not remove the underlying risk.
• Patching: Useful for systems that must remain operational, but these desktops are unused.
• Isolating: Can be a temporary containment measure, but permanently removing unnecessary systems is more appropriate.

• The message came from the claimed sender (authentication)
• The message was not altered in transit (integrity)
• The sender cannot easily deny having signed and sent it (non-repudiation)

• Compliance standards: May be a reason in some organizations, but it is not the primary security benefit.
• Increase delivery rates: Digital signatures do not generally improve email delivery.
• Block phishing attacks: Signatures can help recipients verify legitimate messages, but they do not block phishing by themselves.

• A. Microsoft 365 group with Assigned membership
• C. Microsoft 365 group with Dynamic User membership

Why?

• Assigned membership: You explicitly add User1, User2, and User3.
• Dynamic User membership: Membership is automatically determined by a rule based on user attributes.

Why the other options are incorrect

• B and D: Security groups do not support the Microsoft 365 group expiration policy.
• E: Dynamic Device groups are intended for devices, not these users, and are also security groups.

• Restrict a port to a defined number of MAC addresses
• Use statically configured or “sticky” MAC addresses
• Shut down or restrict the port when violations occur

• Load balancer: Distributes application traffic; it does not protect switch MAC tables.
• IPS: May detect suspicious traffic but is not the primary control for switch-port MAC limits.
• NGFW: Filters routed network traffic, not the switch’s CAM/MAC address table directly.

• Tokens: Individual units of text processed by a model, such as words, subwords, or characters.
• Models: Systems that learn patterns and generate predictions or outputs.
• Binaries: Data represented using the binary number system, not semantic representations.

• IRR assumes that interim cash flows can be reinvested at the project’s own IRR. This may be unrealistic, especially when the IRR is very high.
• MIRR assumes reinvestment at a specified rate, usually the company’s cost of capital or another realistic reinvestment rate.

• B: MIRR does not specifically favour projects with long payback periods.
• C: MIRR and IRR can rank competing projects differently.
• D: MIRR is not always higher than IRR; it may be higher or lower depending on the cash flows and reinvestment rate.

• Constrained VMs: VMs whose workloads are experiencing resource pressure, such as insufficient CPU or memory. They may need additional resources or optimization.
• Overprovisioned VMs: VMs allocated more CPU, memory, or storage than their workloads require. Their resources may be reclaimed or reduced.

• Underprovisioned VMs: This is not the predefined view identified for this report question.
• Zombie VMs: These are typically inactive or unused VMs and are useful for cleanup, but they are not the two views specifically intended here to identify inefficient resource allocation.

• Driver node: Coordinates Spark jobs and runs in the compute environment.
• Worker node: Executes tasks and processes data.
• Databricks Filesystem (DBFS): Provides storage access for data used by compute resources.

• Wireshark captures packets and allows you to examine their contents, potentially revealing usernames and passwords sent without encryption.
• Netcat creates network connections and can send or receive data, but it is not primarily a packet-analysis tool.
• Nessus scans for known vulnerabilities and configuration issues; it generally would not prove that credentials are visible in transit.
• Nmap performs network discovery and port/service scanning, not detailed packet-content inspection.

• Limiting the number of MAC addresses allowed on a switch port
• Restricting ports to specific known MAC addresses
• Taking an action—such as dropping frames or shutting down the port—when the limit is exceeded

• Load balancer: Distributes application traffic; it does not protect switch MAC tables.
• IPS: May detect some attack traffic, but is not the primary control for switch-port MAC limits.
• NGFW: Filters network traffic at the firewall, but does not directly control MAC addresses learned by a switch.

• Data loss prevention (DLP): Helps detect or prevent sensitive data from being copied or transmitted, but it does not primarily protect a stolen laptop’s stored data.
• Operating system hardening: Reduces vulnerabilities and attack surface but does not encrypt files if the device is stolen.
• Boot security: Helps ensure that only trusted software starts, but it does not fully protect the drive if an attacker accesses it offline.

• Each Azure VM must have at least one network interface (NIC).
• A single NIC can have:

• Therefore, each of the five VMs needs only one NIC:

• Lower order numbers appear first.
• For example, a variable with order 100 appears before one with order 200.
• The Sequence field is not the control used for catalog variable display order.
• The Default Value sets a value, not placement.
• The Choice field defines selectable options, not the variable’s position.

• Owner, Contributor, and Network Contributor provide sufficient management permissions.
• Reader can view Traffic Analytics data but cannot enable or configure it.

• s3:GetObject for the relevant objects
• s3:ListBucket if listing is required
• Appropriate bucket and object resource permissions

• B: Making the bucket public is insecure and unnecessary.
• C: Prompt engineering cannot override AWS IAM or encryption permissions.
• D: Data sensitivity does not determine whether the role can access it.

• Input validation: Prevents malicious or malformed input within an application; it does not authenticate a software package.
• Secure cookies: Protect web-session cookies; they do not protect downloadable software.
• Fuzzing: Tests software by supplying unexpected input to find vulnerabilities; it does not verify software integrity.

• DB1 (500 TB): Azure Data Box Heavy

• Virtual machines: Azure Migrate

• C — Custom buttons display at the top and bottom of a page: Correct. In Salesforce Classic, buttons can appear in the page’s button areas, including the top and bottom of record pages.
• D — Custom buttons are available for Person Accounts: Correct. Person Accounts use the Account object, so Account custom buttons can be available on Person Account layouts.
• E — Custom buttons can reference an external app: Correct. A URL custom button can launch or navigate to an external application or website.

• A: JavaScript custom buttons are a Salesforce Classic feature and are not supported in Lightning Experience. They do not enhance Lightning Experience.
• B: The User object does not generally support custom buttons in the same way standard business objects do.

• MFA: Protects sign-in and authentication.
• Azure Key Vault: Protects deployment secrets and credentials.
• Answer: No (B).

• Power BI dataset — Reuses the existing tables, relationships, and measures. You mainly create new visualizations.
• SharePoint folder — Connects to the source files, but you would need to rebuild the model and measures.
• Power BI dataflows — Primarily provide reusable data preparation; they do not automatically provide the existing report’s measures and model.
• Excel workbook — Requires reconnecting to and modeling the source data again.

• Compare each server’s drive specifications and performance data.
• Identify the drive that is faulty, slow, or mismatched.
• Replace it with a drive that matches the required interface, capacity, and performance characteristics.
• Avoid selecting a slower drive, because storage performance can bottleneck the entire server.
• In a redundant array, use a compatible replacement so rebuilding does not create unnecessary performance degradation.

• Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates
• Or, in newer Azure terminology, Bicep files

• Third-party attestation: Provides independent validation, but is typically periodic and performed by an external party.
• Penetration testing: Simulates attacks to identify exploitable vulnerabilities; it does not primarily track compliance.
• Vulnerability scans: Identify technical weaknesses, but do not provide a detailed review of procedures or compliance activities.

• A valid input returns the expected result
• An invalid input raises an error
• Boundary values are handled correctly

• B: Copilot may help generate tests, but it does not automatically write all necessary tests.
• C: Writing the implementation does not verify that it works correctly.
• D: Copilot can suggest test commands or test code, but the developer or development environment must execute and validate the tests.

• Check whether the data is accurate, complete, and properly prepared.
• Confirm that the pattern is not caused by an outlier, data-quality problem, or modeling issue.
• If the data is valid, treat the result as a potentially valuable new business insight.

• A: A data scientist may help, but expert validation and data-quality checking come first.
• C: Filtering out inconvenient data risks hiding a valid insight.
• D: Einstein’s result should not be accepted without verification simply because it produced the finding.

• Espionage: Stealing information for intelligence or competitive purposes.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: An attack sponsored or conducted by a government.
• Shadow IT: Technology or access methods used outside approved IT processes.

• Suspended an operator who correctly refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Rewarded another operator for using the equipment despite the broken safety guard.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — This factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.