Salesforce HEROKU-ARCHITECT Exam Actual Questions
Salesforce Certified Heroku Architect (Page 9 )

• Self-signed certificate: Causes a certificate warning, not incorrect IP resolution.
• Nameserver record: A DNS record problem would typically affect multiple users, not just one.
• IP helper: Relays DHCP or other broadcast traffic between networks; it does not control website name resolution.

• Cross-account access is typically implemented with an IAM role. You create a role in the target account (where the resources live) and configure a trust policy that allows principals from the source account to assume that role.
• Users in the source account then assume the role (via Switch Role in the console or STS:AssumeRole) and receive temporary credentials with the role’s permissions to access the resources.

• IAM group: Groups exist inside a single account; they don’t grant cross-account access.
• IAM tag: Tags are metadata and do not grant access.
• IAM Access Analyzer: It analyzes and identifies public or cross-account access but does not grant access itself.

• Correct answer: A — a clear business case has been established.

• The audit focus for IT procurement is ensuring there is a solid economic justification for the investment. A clear business case documents the expected benefits, costs, risks, and alignment with strategic objectives, which governs whether the investment is worth pursuing.
• The other options are important controls or project aspects, but they are secondary to ensuring the investment is justified financially and strategically:

Why

cmd 
PowerShell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass -File C:\Scripts\ConfigureVM.ps1

Why the other options are less suitable

• GPO logon script: Runs only when a user logs on and may not run during initial VM provisioning.
• GPO startup script: Can work, but requires the VM to be joined to the domain and the policy to be applied. It is also normally evaluated at each startup.
• Place scripts in a VHD: Merely placing scripts on a disk does not cause them to execute.

• Correct answer: D — AWS Migration Hub

• AWS Migration Hub provides a single location to track the progress of application migrations. It offers a centralized dashboard to view migration status across multiple tools and projects.

• AWS Application Discovery Service helps inventory and map on-prem applications and their dependencies, not a single progress tracker.
• AWS Application Migration Service (formerly SMS) performs the actual lift-and-shift migrations, but isn’t the centralized tracker itself.
• AWS Service Catalog manages catalogs of IT services for self-service deployment, not migration progress.

• RPO (Recovery Point Objective) — maximum acceptable data loss, measured in time. It specifies how far back in time you can tolerate data loss. Example: RPO of 2 hours means backups must occur at least every 2 hours.

• ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence) — expected frequency of a threat occurring per year. It estimates how often a risk is likely to happen on average (used in risk calculations).

• MTTR (Mean Time To Recover) — average time to recover/restore service after an incident. It includes detection, repair, and restoration time, and helps gauge downtime and alignment with RTO.

• Used for communication on the local link or LAN segment
• Automatically generated on IPv6-enabled interfaces
• Not routed by routers to other networks
• Commonly used by devices to communicate with their local IPv6 router
• Begins with FE80 through FEBF

• FC00::/7 — unique local unicast
• FE80::/10 — link-local unicast
• FF00::/8 — multicast
• 2000::/3 — global unicast

• Short answer: The correct term is Anti-forensics (option D), not “Felony.”

• Why: The actions described—hiding files in slack space, changing file headers, placing suspicious files in executables, and altering metadata—are classic anti-forensics techniques. They’re used to hinder or obscure forensic analysis, not to label the act as a legal category.

• About the options:

• Note: The provided answer key lists B (Felony), which is misleading for this exam objective. The exam typically tests knowledge of forensics concepts, where anti-forensics is the correct category.

• Recovery procedures actually work
• Recovery time and recovery point objectives can be met
• Staff understand their responsibilities
• Contact details, dependencies, and technical configurations are accurate
• Gaps or conflicts exist in the plan

• Not version-controlled: Creates a risk of using an outdated copy, but the plan might still be effective.
• Contact information needs updating: This is a specific weakness that can be corrected, often identified during testing.
• Not approved by senior management: Approval is important for authority and resource commitment, but an untested plan presents the most direct risk that recovery will fail when needed.

• Mesh: WAPs communicate wirelessly with one another, often to extend coverage without wired connections. It does not specifically describe centralized WLC management.
• Point-to-point: Connects two specific devices or locations.
• Ad hoc: Wireless devices communicate directly with one another without an access point.

• The connecting host keeps the private key securely.
• The destination host stores the corresponding public key in its authorized keys.
• Authentication can occur without a person entering credentials each time.
• SSH also provides encrypted communication and host authentication.

• Biometric: Requires a human user and is difficult to automate.
• Smart card: Often requires user interaction or card access.
• Hard-coded password: Unsafe because passwords stored in scripts or applications can be exposed, reused, or difficult to manage securely.

• 25 — Traditional SMTP server-to-server mail transfer; not normally used for secure client submission.
• 110 — POP3, used to retrieve email and typically unencrypted.
• 143 — IMAP, used to access email and typically unencrypted.

sql 
CREATE TABLE my_table 
USING CSV 
OPTIONS (path '/path/to/csv');

sql 
CREATE TABLE my_table 
USING CSV 
LOCATION '/path/to/csv';

• USING CSV specifies the file format.
• path or LOCATION specifies where the files are stored.
• USING DELTA would be used only when the source data is in Delta format.
• FROM is used in a SELECT statement, not normally as the format declaration in CREATE TABLE.

• The correct setting to configure is the Enrollment Status Page (ESP) profile.
• Why: ESP tracks the enrollment progress and logs during Autopilot provisioning. You can enable log collection within the ESP policy so that, if ESP times out, the user can collect and share the logs with support.
• Optional enhancement: In the ESP policy (or the Autopilot diagnostics settings), you can enable:

• Automatic enrollment settings: control how devices auto-enroll, not log collection.
• Windows Autopilot deployment profile: controls deployment steps but not ESP log collection.
• Device configuration profile: applies settings but doesn’t provide ESP log collection mechanics.

• The two correct options are:

• The two incorrect options:

• Correct answer: A. Inbound data transfer from the internet

• Why: AWS does not charge for data transferred into AWS from the internet. Inbound data transfer is free, regardless of the amount (in this case, 2 TB). The other options involve data leaving AWS or moving between AWS regions/AZs, which incur costs:

• Basic: billing/subscription support only; no technical support requests can be opened.
• Developer, Standard, Professional Direct, and Premier: include technical support and allow opening new support requests.

• If option A corresponds to “Developer, Standard, Professional Direct, Premier,” that is the correct choice.
• If the option text is really “Premier only,” that would be incorrect per current Azure docs.

• D. Provide public endpoints to store and retrieve data

• E. Manage the infrastructure layer and the operating system

• Classifying data
• Configuring access permissions, such as IAM policies
• Selecting or configuring available encryption options, depending on the requirement

Flat organisation

• Few levels of management
• A wide span of control—managers supervise many employees
• Shorter communication channels
• More employee autonomy and quicker decisions
• Fewer formal promotion levels

Tall organisation

• Many levels of management
• A narrow span of control—managers supervise relatively few employees
• A clear hierarchy and reporting structure
• More formal supervision and communication channels
• More obvious promotion and career stages

• Business
• People
• Governance
• Platform
• Security
• Operations

• Program and project management
• Risk management
• Cloud financial management
• Data governance
• Portfolio management

• Sustainability
• Performance efficiency
• Reliability

• The diagnostic output shows that the protocol is TCP (proto=6) and the session state is 2.
• In FortiGate’s session output, state=2 maps to SYN_SENT. This means the TCP SYN has been sent but the handshake hasn’t completed yet.
• Therefore, the session is not ESTABLISHED, FIN/ACK-related states, or other states; it’s in SYN_SENT.

• B — Increase provisioned concurrency for Lambda

• D — Refactor the Lambda functions

• E — Use Amazon RDS Proxy

• Correct answer: C: Amazon Comprehend.

• Why: The library wants to classify books based on their text content. This is an NLP (natural language processing) task. Amazon Comprehend is AWS’s managed NLP service that can perform content classification (including creating custom classifiers) and extract meaningful information from text. The other services are not focused on text classification:

• Quick note: In practice, you’d store the books in S3, extract text if needed (e.g., from PDFs with Textract), and then use Comprehend to classify the documents into topics or genres.

• Amazon DynamoDB — Managed NoSQL database, not PostgreSQL.
• Amazon Athena — Serverless service for querying data in S3; intended for analytics, not OLTP.
• Amazon EMR — Managed cluster platform for big-data frameworks such as Hadoop and Spark.

• Correct answer: UBA (A)

• Why: UBA (User Behavior Analytics) analyzes user activity, builds baselines of normal access patterns, and flags deviations (e.g., accessing sensitive projects not related to the user’s role). This insider-threat detection is exactly what the scenario requires.

• Why not the others:

• L2TP uses UDP port 1701 for the L2TP control channel.
• The destination port is 1701; the source port is a dynamically chosen ephemeral port on the client (not 1701).
• Therefore the statement that both source and destination ports are 1710 is incorrect (and 1710 is not the standard L2TP port).

• The destination port should be 1701, not 1710.
• The source port should be an ephemeral port chosen by the client, not 1701.

• Premium file shares: contoso104 only
• Blob access tiers: contoso101, contoso102, and contoso103

• Premium Azure Files shares require a storage account with the FileStorage account kind. This is a specialized account type and is not used for blob storage.
• Blob access tiers such as Hot, Cool, and—where supported—Archive apply to blob-capable accounts, such as General-purpose v2 or BlobStorage accounts shown in the exhibit.
• contoso104 is therefore excluded from the blob-tier selection because it is the premium Files account.

• A private IP address on the virtual network
• A public IP address associated with its IP configuration

• Correct answer: C — The model is deployed at UK border checkpoints.

• The EU AI Act applies to AI systems used within the EU or by entities established in the EU. So:

• Who performed the action
• What action occurred
• When it occurred
• Where it originated
• Whether it succeeded or failed

• Investigating suspicious activity: Important, but investigation depends on having adequate audit data first.
• Storage allocation: Necessary for retention, but storage does not help if the records lack meaningful details.
• Actions after audit failure: Part of operational planning, not the primary assessment of the application’s audit capability.

• Strongest encryption algorithms: Choose the strongest available encryption and integrity options, typically AES with the largest key size and a secure integrity algorithm.
• Encrypt all traffic: Select tunnel mode rather than transport mode. Tunnel mode encrypts the entire original IP packet, which is appropriate for a site-to-site VPN between branch networks.
• Secret-password authentication: Configure a pre-shared key (PSK) on both VPN concentrators. The key must match at both ends.

• Answer: D) Shadow IT

• Why: Shadow IT is when employees use unsanctioned tools or bypass IT controls (like the VPN) to access services, often without IT oversight. It’s an internal behavior, not an external attacker’s activity.

• Not these:

• Quick note: This creates risk due to lack of visibility and control. Mitigations include a defined approved-tools list, enforcing VPN usage, device management, and continuous monitoring.

• B — AWS DataSync: Transfers data between storage systems, such as S3, file systems, and on-premises storage. It is not a marketplace or catalog for third-party datasets.
• C — Kinesis Data Streams and CodeCommit: CodeCommit is a source-code repository, not a third-party data provider. Kinesis is for streaming data ingestion.
• D — Kinesis Data Streams and ECR: ECR stores container images, not datasets. Kinesis does not provide access to ECR data as an external dataset source.

• Why: ADS is designed to collect information about on-premises environments to plan migrations. It inventories details like hostname, IP address, MAC address, OS, hardware, and installed software, plus dependency mappings. This data helps you understand your current environment before moving to AWS.

• How it differs from the other options:

• Practical use: Install the ADS agent on on-prem hosts to collect data, then view the inventory in Migration Hub to inform migration planning and sequencing.

• Import mode loads the data into the Power BI model. Visuals query the in-memory model, which generally provides faster calculation and rendering than DirectQuery.
• Import mode also minimizes online processing because report interactions do not send queries back to the dataflow or SQL Server.
• A daily refresh can load data through the previous day, satisfying the freshness requirement without unnecessary hourly processing.

• DirectQuery keeps querying the data source or dataflow during report use, increasing online processing and potentially slowing visuals.
• Adding a gateway enables connectivity for on-premises sources, but it does not remove the performance disadvantages of DirectQuery.
• An hourly Power Automate refresh is unnecessary when the requirement is only data through the previous day and creates additional processing overhead.

• Why: After listing all resources, you need to assign who is responsible for each task. A RACI chart (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) documents these roles for every activity.

• What RACI means:

• Why the others aren’t suitable here:

• Quick example: Task "Create user authentication module" — Responsible: Developer, Accountable: Tech Lead, Consulted: Security Architect, Informed: PM.

• The AWS Support Concierge is a specialized team within Enterprise Support whose primary role is handling billing and account questions and helping with account setup and getting started.
• They are not the source for architecture guidance or development assistance; those services are provided by Technical Account Managers (TAMs) or Solutions Architects as part of Enterprise Support.
• For technical support cases, customers typically interact with AWS Support engineers or the TAMs, not the Concierge. The Concierge may route or coordinate related requests, but they don’t provide the technical resolution.

• What Concierge does: billing and account inquiries, onboarding help, coordination with AWS support.
• What Concierge does not do: provide architecture/design guidance or in-depth technical support case resolutions.

• Context: You’ve enabled auditing in Dataverse and need to trim audit data to free storage. The question asks which deletion options you can use.

• What the options typically mean:

• About the provided answer (A, C, D): The list includes “by column,” which isn’t a typical or supported way to purge audit data. The more plausible trio is A (by record), B (date range), and C (by table older than date). If the exam expects A, C, D, that seems incorrect or mis-stated in the source.

• Practical takeaway: To reduce audit storage, use per-record deletions, per-table purge by date, and/or date-range deletions as supported by the environment’s audit management UI or admin docs.

• Use a field on Account to show the aggregated yearly shipments (a Roll-Up Summary).
• A Master-Detail relationship between Shipment and Account is required for Roll-Up Summary to work (and to ensure access is governed by the parent Account).
• OWD and the relationship type determine what users can see. If you want to restrict shipment-level access while still showing a summary on Account, Private OWD on Shipment plus Master-Detail helps, because access to shipments is controlled by the Account record.

• A (Public OWD on Shipment with Process Builder and a Lookup to Account): Not ideal. Public access would expose shipments broadly, and a lookup cannot support a built-in roll-up summary.
• B (Private OWD on Shipment, Roll-Up Summary, Master-Detail to Account): Best answer. Private shipments, but because of Master-Detail, access and the roll-up are tied to the Account. The Account can show the yearly total via a Roll-Up Summary field.
• C (Controlled by Parent on Shipment, Trigger, Master-Detail): Master-Detail is correct, but using a trigger is unnecessary for a straightforward roll-up; roll-ups are the standard, maintainable solution.
• D (Private OWD on Shipment, Trigger, Lookup to Account): More complex and not as efficient; no automatic roll-up, and lookup breaks the ease of summarizing by Account.

• Correct answer: D – Do not enable default administrative accounts to ensure accountability.

• A – Do not use encryption methods … backups and sensitive information: Encryption helps protect data; not using it increases risk, not reduces insider threats.
• B – Do not allow administrators to use unique accounts during installation: We actually want unique admin accounts, not the opposite.
• C – Do not control the access to administrators and privileged users: Failing to control access directly enables misuse.

• Authenticating websites with TLS/HTTPS
• Enabling certificate-based VPN authentication
• Signing or encrypting email
• Supporting device or user authentication

• VLAN tagging: Uses network-frame tags, such as 802.1Q; it does not rely on X.509 certificates.
• LDAP: May integrate with PKI in some environments, but X.509 certificates are not most commonly associated with LDAP itself.
• MFA: Certificates can be one authentication factor, but X.509 is fundamentally a PKI technology.

• Answer: Internal load balancers (ILB) — option C.

• An ILB has a frontend IP address that must be a private IP within the subnet’s address space. You pick this IP when you create the ILB, and it can be Static or Dynamic.
• Other options don’t require a per-subnet IP:

• A — conformant: Incorrect because one explicit requirement is violated.
• B — consistent: “Consistent” is not sufficient where the implementation contradicts a mandatory specification. The RPC mechanism is covered by the architecture, and the implementation differs from it.
• C — consistent: Incorrect reasoning: the RPC mechanism does have a defined architectural requirement, so conformance must be assessed.
• D — non-conformant: Correct because the implementation fails to follow the specified RPC/threading requirement.

• IaaS: You manage the virtual machine’s operating system, configuration, applications, and data. Azure manages the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform.
• PaaS: You deploy applications without managing the underlying operating system or servers.
• SaaS: You consume a complete application managed by the provider, such as Microsoft 365.

• The app on EC2 connects to Aurora using DB credentials stored on the instance. Secrets Manager centralizes these credentials and can rotate them automatically, eliminating manual updates on each EC2 host.
• Automatic rotation reduces operational overhead and enhances security because credentials are rotated on a schedule without code changes.
• The app can retrieve the current secret at runtime (e.g., via the AWS SDK) and use it to authenticate to Aurora, avoiding reliance on locally stored files.

• B (Parameter Store) can store secrets but lacks seamless built-in rotation for database credentials like Secrets Manager; rotation often requires more custom work.
• C (S3) would require complex tooling to rotate and securely fetch credentials and still risks exposure if access policies aren’t perfect.
• D (Encrypted EBS volumes) would store credentials locally on each instance and does not automate rotation or centralized management.

• Multi-pass wipe: Overwrites the drive’s existing data multiple times, making recovery much more difficult while preserving the drive’s functionality.
• Single-pass wipe: May be sufficient in some modern sanitization standards, but is presented here as less secure than multiple overwrites.
• Degaussing: Uses a strong magnetic field to disrupt data. It can render the drive unusable or unreliable, reducing its resale value.
• Pinning: Is not an appropriate data-sanitization method.

• Answer: No.

• Why:

• If you need such an assessment while controlling costs, you’d generally pursue a paid MCS engagement or another option outside of the basic Premier entitlement.

• Why: Crisis management relies on established, repeatable procedures for responding to an incident (activation of the crisis team, escalation paths, communications, containment actions). This ensures a coordinated, timely, and auditable response.

• Why not the others:

• The explanation states that Traffic Analytics can be enabled by a user with one of these subscription-level roles:

• Question 34 — Network Contributor: Yes
• Question 35 — Owner: Yes
• Question 36 — Reader: Yes, according to the stated explanation and documentation

• Correct answer: A) Hashing

• Why: Hashing produces a fixed-size digest of the software. If the final build is altered in any way, the hash will change, enabling you to detect tampering by comparing the stored digest with a freshly computed one.

• Why not the others: