Test Prep CFA-Level-I Exam Prep
CFA® Level I Chartered Financial Analyst (Page 378 )

• The message came from the claimed sender (authentication)
• The message was not altered (integrity)
• The sender cannot easily deny sending it (non-repudiation)

• Attackers can send unsigned phishing emails.
• Attackers may compromise a legitimate account and send signed malicious emails.
• Users may still be tricked by a validly signed message.

• C — Before update
• D — Before insert

apex 
trigger AccountTrigger on Account (before insert, before update) { 
    for (Account acct : Trigger.new) { 
        acct.Description = 'Updated automatically'; 
    } 
}

• In after insert and after update, Trigger.new records are read-only.
• Use after triggers when you need the record’s final database Id or want to create/update related records.
• Attempting to change a field directly in an after trigger causes a read-only error.

Why this is correct

• Each user authenticates with their own Google account.
• Google manages the user’s SSH key association.
• IAM controls who can access instances.
• Access can be audited by user identity, so security can determine who accessed a VM.
• Granting the role to a Google group avoids managing permissions individually.

Why the others don’t apply

• A: A shared private key is difficult to distribute securely and cannot reliably identify which employee used it.
• B: Manually collecting and deploying keys on every instance is operationally inefficient and complicates auditing.
• D: A project-wide shared key has the same identity and key-management problems as option A. It also does not provide per-user accountability.

• Amazon EC2 instances — ???????? ?? ?? ??????? CPU, memory ??? instance size ???????? ???????
• AWS Lambda functions — memory configuration ?????????? ???????
• Amazon EBS volumes — volume type ?? size optimize ???? ???????
• ??????? ECS workloads — resource configuration ? cost optimization-?? ???????

• Memory ? compute usage ?????????? ???? custom code ????? ???? development ? maintenance ??????
• Cost allocation tags ???? ????? ??? ?????? ???? ??????? ???; inefficient resource ??????? ?? recommendation ???? ???
• CloudTrail resource ???? ?? API activity ??????, resource utilization ????

• Default network device credentials: More associated with external attackers or poor device configuration.
• Spear phishing emails: Commonly used to compromise users, but less characteristic of an insider who already has access.
• Typosquatting and impersonation: Primarily social-engineering techniques aimed at deceiving users.
• Unidentified removable devices: Provide a direct way to transfer data outside the organization and may bypass network monitoring.

• Share of overall contribution: part of the organization’s total contribution is allocated to the supplying division.
• Dual pricing: the supplying division may record a higher transfer price while the receiving division records a lower price, with central accounts absorbing the difference.
• A centrally imposed price range: this may allow the transfer price to be set above variable cost, helping the supplying division recover fixed costs.

• Understating expenses and liabilities
• Overstating profit
• Misleading users of the financial information
• Potentially breaching integrity, objectivity, and professional competence and due care

• SQL injection
• Cross-site scripting (XSS)
• Malicious or malformed web requests
• Some application-layer attacks

• Layer 4 firewall: Filters based mainly on IP addresses, ports, and transport protocols; it cannot deeply inspect web application content.
• NGFW: Provides advanced network filtering and may include application awareness, but a WAF is more specifically designed to protect web applications.
• UTM: Combines several security functions in one appliance, but it is not the most targeted solution for a web portal.

• CSIRT: A Computer Security Incident Response Team that handles and coordinates incident response.
• CVSS: A scoring system used to rate the severity of vulnerabilities.
• SOAR: Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response technology used to automate security workflows.

• The vulnerability scan identifies a vulnerability.
• The administrator verifies that the vulnerability is not present.
• Therefore, the scan produced a false positive.

• True positive: A vulnerability is reported and genuinely exists.
• False negative: A vulnerability exists, but the scan fails to detect it.
• True negative: No vulnerability exists, and the scan correctly reports no issue.

• Virus signatures: Primarily associated with antivirus or antimalware tools.
• Security agent deployment: Usually handled by endpoint-management or endpoint-security platforms.
• Vulnerability scanning: Performed by vulnerability-assessment tools, although a SIEM may ingest their results.

• Leaf switches provide access ports for servers, users, and other devices.
• Spine switches provide the backbone between leaf switches.
• Every leaf switch connects to every spine switch, creating a predictable, full-mesh fabric between the two layers.
• Leaf switches do not connect directly to other leaf switches, and spine switches do not connect directly to other spine switches.

• A: Adding both a spine and leaf is unnecessary for simply adding access ports.
• B: It focuses on uplink speed, not the scalable topology.
• D: A single spine connection creates a bottleneck and a single point of failure.

1. Get Data > Folder

1. Expand the Attributes column

1. Remove the Content column

• Folder connector: lists files and their metadata, but also includes a Content binary column.
• Combine Files: processes and combines the actual CSV contents, which is explicitly disallowed here.

• A static IP gives the surveillance system a predictable local address, so users can reliably reach it on the LAN.
• However, a static IP does not block internet-based login attempts. If the router exposes the device through port forwarding, attackers could still reach it.
• Port mapping normally exposes an internal service externally, so A is a poor choice as written.
• Subnetting alone also does not block traffic; it would require routing/firewall rules.

• The message came from the claimed sender (authentication)
• The message was not altered in transit (integrity)
• The sender cannot easily deny having signed and sent it (non-repudiation)

• Compliance standards: May be a reason in some organizations, but it is not the primary security benefit.
• Increase delivery rates: Digital signatures do not generally improve email delivery.
• Block phishing attacks: Signatures can help recipients verify legitimate messages, but they do not block phishing by themselves.

• Fileless malware: Nothing in the command indicates malware executing only in memory.
• Living-off-the-land binaries: Mimikatz is a credential-access tool, not a normal system utility used for LOLBin abuse.
• Social engineering: The command shows technical credential abuse, not manipulation of an accountant.

• A — Correct: Identify the data required by Salesforce, its dependencies, and how it should be validated. Verification scripts help confirm record counts, relationships, field mappings, and data integrity after migration.
• D — Correct: Use a full sandbox and perform trial migrations using realistic—or appropriately masked—legacy data. This exposes transformation, volume, dependency, and integration issues before production cutover.
• B — Less appropriate: Phased user migration and parallel operation primarily address user adoption and rollout risk, not the technical risks of data migration.
• C — Less appropriate: Although sandbox testing and integration testing are valuable, the option emphasizes test-data generation rather than validating the migration with representative legacy data. “A full sandbox for all systems” may also be impractical.

• Sets a high initial price for a new product.
• Targets customers willing to pay more, often called early adopters.
• Gradually reduces the price to attract more price-sensitive customers as the product becomes less novel and competition increases.

• Penetration pricing: starts with a low price to gain market share quickly.
• Premium pricing: maintains a high price to communicate superior quality or status; it does not necessarily involve later price reductions.
• Loss leader pricing: sells one product at a very low price, sometimes below cost, to attract customers who may buy other products.

• Initial Intrusion: The compromised VPN account and stolen phishing credentials describe how the attacker first gained access, but that happened months earlier.
• Persistence: The scheduled tasks and recurring C2 connections show how the attacker maintained and automated continued access.
• Search and Exfiltration: This would involve locating and transferring data. The scenario does not primarily describe data discovery or theft.
• Cleanup: Cleanup involves removing evidence or covering tracks. Obfuscated scripts may make detection harder, but the main behavior here is maintaining access.

• Compute: Not used; no virtual warehouse is required.
• Data Storage: Not scanned again.
• Metadata: May help Snowflake manage and validate cached results, but it is not the Snowflake architectural layer identified as serving the request.
• Cloud Services: Handles query coordination, metadata services, authentication, and result-cache access.

• The audience and stakeholders
• The complexity and type of requirements
• The communication method and level of detail needed
• Whether to use diagrams, models, documents, demonstrations, or slides

• B: Authority to host the presentation is not the key preparation activity.
• C: Stakeholder sign-off may occur later; presenting requirements does not always require formal approval beforehand.
• D: A scribe may be useful in a meeting, but hiring one is not a core preparation requirement for presenting.

• Company documents
• Databases
• Knowledge bases
• Current web or business data

• A: Describes diversity and inclusive design, not grounding.
• B: Describes explainability or model interpretability.
• D: Describes documenting a model’s capabilities and limitations.

• A password cracker would normally be identified by behavior such as loading password hashes or attempting dictionary/brute-force attacks.
• The question describes a routine audit, not password recovery.
• Simply encountering a protected file during an audit is characteristic of a misconfigured or insufficiently privileged FIM.

text 
ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global 
ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global 
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20

• The route in Customer1 VRF provides a path back to the Customer2 subnet, 172.16.1.0/24.
• The route in Customer2 VRF provides a path to the FTP server, 192.168.1.200.
• The keyword global tells the router to resolve the next hop using the global routing table, enabling controlled route leaking between the VRF and global table.
• The global routes identify the VLAN interfaces used to reach each customer network.

• D — Value analysis: Correct. It examines an existing product to identify ways of reducing its cost while still providing the required functions, quality and reliability.
• E — Kaizen costing: Correct. It involves making continuous, small improvements and cost reductions while the product is already in production.

• Functional analysis: It is not limited to minimizing the cost of the originally defined functions. It examines what functions are required and how they can be provided at the lowest overall cost.
• Value engineering: Usually applies to the design and development of a new product, rather than being a fundamental redesign of existing organisational processes. That description is closer to business process re-engineering.
• Target costing: The target cost is generally established during the product development stage, before production begins. It is not continuously reset while the product is in production.

• JDBC
• SnowSQL
• Snowflake Web Interface (UI)
• ODBC
• Python connector

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Shifting responsibility or financial impact to another party, such as through insurance or outsourcing.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact of the risk through controls.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity or condition that creates the risk.

• Identifying the communication strategy: Usually part of a business continuity or incident response plan.
• Evaluating the risk management plan: Part of risk assessment and risk management activities.
• Establishing backup and recovery procedures: Usually part of disaster recovery planning.
• Developing the incident response plan: Part of incident response planning.

• T?o m?t Systems Manager Automation runbook d? ch?y l?nh kh?i d?ng l?i ?ng d?ng trên các EC2 instance.
• T?o m?t Amazon EventBridge rule ph?n ?ng khi CloudWatch alarm chuy?n sang tr?ng thái ALARM.
• Ð?t Automation runbook làm target c?a EventBridge rule.

1. Log c?a ?ng d?ng du?c ghi vào CloudWatch Logs.
2. CloudWatch alarm phát hi?n nhi?u l?i liên quan d?n vi?c restart.
3. Alarm chuy?n sang tr?ng thái ALARM.
4. EventBridge nh?n s? ki?n thay d?i tr?ng thái này.
5. EventBridge g?i Systems Manager Automation runbook.
6. Runbook restart ?ng d?ng trên các EC2 instance, không restart c? instance.

• A: SNS không tr?c ti?p g?i Systems Manager Automation runbook nhu m?t target native.
• B: Lambda có th? th?c hi?n vi?c restart, nhung ph?i t? x? lý vi?c xác d?nh instance và ch?y l?nh t? xa.
• C: Lambda ch? làm trung gian d? g?i runbook, không c?n thi?t vì EventBridge có th? g?i runbook tr?c ti?p.

• SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): Commonly used for enterprise SSO between an identity provider and cloud applications. It sends signed authentication assertions to the service provider.
• RADIUS: Primarily used for centralized authentication to network devices, VPNs, and wireless networks.
• EAP: An authentication framework commonly used with network access technologies; it is not typically the SSO protocol for SaaS applications.
• OpenID: Related to identity authentication, but traditional enterprise SSO questions involving cloud applications generally expect SAML. OpenID Connect is a newer authentication layer built on OAuth 2.0.

1. Identify the fact table

• Records something that happened, such as a sale, test, appointment, or measurement
• Contains foreign keys to other tables
• Contains measures or numeric results
• Has many rows

2. Identify a dimension table

• Describe people, products, dates, locations, or departments
• Contain descriptive columns
• Are referenced by the fact table
• Have fewer rows than the fact table

3. Identify the surrogate key

• System-generated
• Unique within the dimension
• Often named PatientKey, CustomerKey, or similar
• Usually an integer
• Not meaningful outside the model

• Suporta domínios personalizados.
• Oferece 50 GB de armazenamento — suficiente para os 10 GB de cada aplicação.
• Usa instâncias de computação dedicadas.
• Inclui balanceamento de carga entre instâncias.
• É o plano mais econômico entre as opções que atendem a todos esses requisitos.

• Feedback form: Captures opinions, not necessarily actual behavior; users may not respond.
• Questionnaire: Relies on memory and subjective judgments about usefulness.
• Interviews: Can provide valuable qualitative insights, but a sample of users may not represent overall usage accurately.

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Moving the risk’s financial impact to a third party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact through controls, such as patching or employee training.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity that creates the risk.

• The users currently have Office 365 Enterprise E3 licenses assigned directly.
• Assigning Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 through a group does not automatically remove their directly assigned E3 licenses.
• From the Licenses blade, you can select the E3 product and remove it from all assigned users in one operation. This requires less effort than editing 2,500 users individually.

• Identity Governance manages access reviews, entitlement management, and related governance—not bulk license removal.
• Set-AzureAdUser does not remove product licenses.
• Set-WindowsProductKey applies Windows product keys and is unrelated to Microsoft 365 licensing.

• Honeypots: Deliberately vulnerable or attractive systems designed to lure attackers. Legitimate users should not access them, so activity on a honeypot is a strong indicator of compromise.
• DNS sinkholes: Redirect requests for known malicious domains to a controlled internal system instead of allowing the connection. This can identify infected hosts attempting to contact command-and-control infrastructure.

• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens; it protects data but does not primarily detect attackers.
• CI/CD: Automates software development and deployment processes.
• Threat modeling: Identifies potential threats and weaknesses before or during system design.
• Data obfuscation: Makes data harder to understand, but it is not an attacker-detection method.

• Career enhancement — A mentor can provide guidance, advice, networking support and help the mentee identify career opportunities.
• Support with new challenges — A mentor can help the mentee think through unfamiliar situations and develop confidence and practical solutions.
• Personal development — Mentoring can improve skills such as communication, leadership, decision-making and self-awareness.

• Solving all problems — The mentor supports and guides the mentee but should not take responsibility for solving every problem.
• Discipline would be dispensed if they make a mistake — Mentoring does not remove normal accountability or workplace consequences. Mistakes should instead become learning opportunities.

• Which host first communicated with the suspected malicious source
• Whether that host initiated suspicious traffic or merely received it
• Which other hosts show evidence of infection, such as connections from the originating host
• Which hosts have no related suspicious activity and are therefore clean

• An outbound connection to a suspicious external address
• A downloaded or executed malicious file
• Later lateral connections from that host to other internal systems
• Firewall logs showing the direction and timing of the traffic

• The S3 bucket as an origin for static content
• The Application Load Balancer (ALB) as an origin for dynamic content
• An Amazon Route 53 alias record pointing the application domain to CloudFront

Why this works

• Static data: CloudFront caches objects from S3 at edge locations, reducing latency for users worldwide.
• Dynamic data: CloudFront forwards requests that require application processing to the ALB. It can also maintain persistent connections and use the AWS global edge network to improve delivery performance.
• One domain: CloudFront behaviors can route different path patterns to different origins—for example, /static/* to S3 and other paths to the ALB.

Why the other options are incorrect

• Global Accelerator is designed primarily for accelerating traffic to applications with endpoints such as ALBs, not for caching S3 content.
• Using separate domains or splitting static and dynamic traffic adds unnecessary complexity.
• CloudFront already provides the required global edge distribution and caching, so combining it with Global Accelerator is unnecessary here.

• Microservices: An application-design approach that divides an application into smaller services. It does not inherently reduce the number of operating systems.
• Virtualization: Creates virtual machines, but each VM generally requires its own complete operating system. This improves isolation but does not minimize OS instances as effectively.
• Infrastructure as code: Uses code to automate infrastructure deployment and configuration. It improves consistency but does not determine how many operating systems are used.

• B: Não é preciso implantar o modelo em um endpoint do Amazon SageMaker, pois o Bedrock já oferece a infraestrutura de inferência.
• C: O SageMaker Model Registry é usado para gerenciar modelos no SageMaker, não é requisito para modelos customizados no Bedrock.
• D: Não existe uma etapa geral de “conceder acesso” ao modelo customizado como requisito principal de uso. O ponto essencial é adquirir o Provisioned Throughput.

• Record changes — a flow can start when a record is updated or otherwise changes.
• Schedules — a flow can run at a specified date/time or on a schedule.
• Record inserts — a flow can start when a new record is created.

• Subflows are reusable flow components called by another flow; they are not normally trigger types.
• Record views do not generally initiate a Flow Designer flow.

• 255.255.255.128 = /25: 128 total, 126 usable
• 255.255.255.192 = /26: 64 total, 62 usable
• 255.255.255.224 = /27: 32 total, 30 usable
• 255.255.255.240 = /28: 16 total, 14 usable

• One for the network address
• One for the broadcast address

• 8 total addresses
• 6 usable addresses
• Mask: 255.255.255.248

• IaaS: você gerencia a VM e o sistema operacional.
• PaaS: o Azure gerencia a infraestrutura; você se concentra no aplicativo.

• Configure row-level security (RLS) using the sales region and the HR manager’s identity.
• Publish the reports and datasets through a Power BI app.
• Grant the HR managers permission to use the app, but do not add them as workspace members.
• App users can view and interact with reports while RLS limits them to their region.
• They cannot modify the report layout because they do not have workspace editing permissions.

• Adding them to the workspace gives them workspace permissions that may allow report or dataset changes, depending on the assigned role.
• Creating copies is unnecessary and creates maintenance and security problems.
• Hosting datasets and reports in different workspaces does not, by itself, provide the required controlled access.

• AWS Network Firewall can inspect and block traffic across a VPC when traffic is routed through the firewall. A Drop action rule can deny traffic from the suspicious source IP.
• GuardDuty findings are sent to Security Hub.
• A Lambda function can be invoked when Security Hub receives a new GuardDuty finding, extract the source IP, and update the Network Firewall policy with a blocking rule.

• GuardDuty threat lists: Used to identify or increase the severity of findings; they do not directly block VPC traffic.
• AWS WAF: Protects supported web applications, such as CloudFront or Application Load Balancers. It does not provide general VPC-wide traffic blocking.
• GuardDuty suppression rules: Suppress or hide findings. They do not block the suspicious traffic.

• Active remediation actions role in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint

• Security Reader role in Azure AD/Entra ID

• Security Administrator is broader than necessary because it grants extensive security-management permissions, violating least privilege.
• Compliance Data Administrator is intended for compliance data management, not Defender for Endpoint remediation approvals.

• STP elects the switch with the lowest Bridge ID as the root bridge.
• The Bridge ID consists mainly of bridge priority + MAC address.
• If multiple switches have the same priority, the switch with the lower MAC address is preferred.
• STP bridge priority values are configured in increments of 4096, such as 0, 4096, 8192, and so on. 32768 is the standard default value.

• Reviewing security objectives to ensure they support business goals.
• Ensuring security requirements are integrated consistently across business units.
• Coordinating security policies, risk management, controls, and awareness activities.

• Executive management: Provides direction, funding, and support, but usually does not manage day-to-day security integration.
• Board of directors: Provides governance and oversight, not operational security coordination.
• Steering committee: Helps coordinate and prioritize initiatives, but the CISO typically owns the overall security program and ensures its integration.

• Labels control access and protection, not blanket exclusion.
• If the user has permission to open a labeled file—especially if the label allows authenticated users to view it—Copilot can use that file in a summary.
• If the label applies encryption and the user lacks the required usage rights, Copilot should not use the file or reveal its contents.
• Copilot honors the user’s existing permissions, so it should not expose labeled content to an unauthorized user.