QUESTION: 125

A 11-year-old boy comes with decreased appetite and abdominal pain around his umbilicus. His parents think he doesn't want to go to school, and while in math class he begins to have sharp pain in his right lower abdomen. He is rushed to the ED and laboratory analysis shows a WBC of 12,500.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

Acute appendicitis
Acute pancreatitis
Cholecystitis
Acute diverticulitis

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Acute appendicitis presents with pain that originates in the umbilical region and later begins to localize to the right lower quadrant. The patient will then develop signs of peritonitis. This patient is too young for diverticulitis. Diverticultitis also gives pain in the left lower quadrant. Cholecystitis would present with right upper quadrant pain. Pancreatitis would have midepigastric pain that radiates to the back with high amylase and lipase levels. The number one consideration is the location of the pain. It gives away 95% of the diagnosis.

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QUESTION: 126

To prevent tetanus in neonate:

Give penicillin to child to kill tetanus bacilli
Give immunoglobulin to mother
Give tetanus toxoid to mother
Give antibiotics to mother

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Antitetanus vaccination in multiple doses (2ג€"3) is up to 98% effective in preventing neonatal tetanus and neonatal tetanus deaths in under-resourced settings.
Single doses of the tetanus vaccine are not enough to prevent neonatal tetanus deaths. In addition to administration of antitetanus vaccines, efforts should be made to ensure that women receive obstetric care to ensure clean deliveries.

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QUESTION: 127

The tumor, which may occur in the residual breast or overlying skin following wide local excision and radiotherapy for mammary carcinoma, is:

Squamous cell carcinoma
Leiomyosarcoma
Angiosarcoma
Basal cell carcinoma

Answer(s): C

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QUESTION: 128

An elderly man comes to the emergency department with fever, headache, a stiff neck, and photophobia. He is HIV positive with < 50 CD4 cells and a history of pneumocystis pneumonia. His head CT is normal. CSF shows 2,500 white cells that are all neutrophils; Gram stain is normal.
What is the best initial therapy?

Cefoxitin and mefloquine
Fluconazole
Ceftriaxone, ampicillin, and vancomycin

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Listeria monocytogenes is a cause of meningitis that is not adequately treated by any form of cephalosporin. Ampicillin is added to the usual regimen of ceftriaxone and vancomycin to cover Listeria. This cannot be fungal meningitis, because the CSF is characterized exclusively by a high number of neutrophils; neutrophils are not consistent with fungal meningitis.

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Free MCQS Exam Braindumps (page: 32)

QUESTION: 125

Explanation:

QUESTION: 126

Explanation:

QUESTION: 127

QUESTION: 128

Explanation: