Free STEP2 Exam Braindumps (page: 24)

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A55-year-old man is being evaluated for gradually increasing shortness of breath. He does not smoke and does not have any significant environmental exposures. Cardiac workup is unremarkable and pulmonary function tests reveal decreased lung volumes and decreased total lung capacity (TLC) and vital capacity.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. chronic pulmonary emboli
  2. obstructive lung disease
  3. adult-onset asthma
  4. tuberculosis
  5. interstitial lung disease (ILD)

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

ILD is characterized by decreased lung volumes including decreased TLC, forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), and forced vital capacity (FVC). Such patients also have reduced diffusing capacity (DLCO) due to alveolar damage. Causes of ILD include pulmonary diseases such as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, connective tissue disorders, and drugs. Extrapulmonary issues from poor breathing mechanics such as scoliosis or myasthenia gravis may also result in a restrictive pattern on PFT testing, however DLCO is normal. Obstructive lung disease is characterized by decreased FEV1 and TLC that is normal or increased.



A 24-year-old man is found to be seropositive for HIV on a military induction screening test. Which of the following opportunistic infections is most likely to develop in this patient?

  1. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
  2. Candida albicans fungemia
  3. disseminated Mycobacterium aviumintracellulare infection
  4. cryptococcal meningitis
  5. cytomegalovirus retinitis

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Although thrush and esophagitis attributable to C. albicans are common manifestations of AIDS-related immunodeficiency, fungal dissemination and sepsis are extremely rare. Although not uncommon, opportunistic infections in these patients, disseminated M. aviumintracellulare, cryptococcal meningitis, and cytomegalovirus retinitis, are less common than P. carinii pneumonia. Prior to the HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) era, PCP (phencyclidine) was the AIDS defining illness in about 50% of AIDS patients not on PCP prophylaxis. While the number of deaths from PCP has decreased dramatically, it is still a leading cause of death in AIDS



A56-year-old man complains of fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, and palpitations. He has had a murmur since childhood. Examination reveals a lift at the left sternal border, split S1, and fixed splitting of S2. There is a grade 3/6 midsystolic pulmonic murmur and a 1/6 middiastolic tricuspid murmur at the lower left sternal border. CXR shows right ventricular enlargement and prominent pulmonary arteries. An ECG demonstrates atrial fibrillation with a RBBB. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. coarctation of the aorta
  2. ASD
  3. patent ductus arteriosus
  4. tetralogy of Fallot
  5. VSD

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

ASD is the second most common form of congenital heart disease in adults, after a bicuspid aortic valve.
The murmur heard in childhood is often considered innocent, and symptoms do not appear until adulthood.
A left-to-right shunt of blood between the atria causes right ventricular overload and increased pulmonary circulation. These result in the classic findings of a pulmonic systolic ejection murmur, late pulmonic valve closure with wide splitting of S2, and a tricuspid flow murmur. CXR has signs of cardiomegaly and pulmonary overcirculation. Characteristic ECG changes are atrial fibrillation and an incomplete or complete RBBB. In the more common ostium secundum type of ASD, there is often right axis deviation; whereas, the ostium primum type has a left axis deviation pattern.
Coarctation of the aorta, patent ductus arteriosus, and VSDs are not associated with the findings of the patient described in the question, and tetralogy of Fallot would not present in adulthood.



Select the ONE best lettered option that is most closely associated with it. Each lettered option may be selected once, more than once, or not at all.

A 70-year-old female with headaches and fevers notices visual changes. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 125. Most likely she is the victim of

  1. rheumatoid arthritis
  2. SLE
  3. Wegener's granulomatosus
  4. polyarteritis nodosa
  5. Goodpasture syndrome
  6. fibromyalgia
  7. osteoarthritis (OA)
  8. giant cell arteritis
  9. sarcoidosis

Answer(s): H

Explanation:

Giant cell arteritis (aka temporal arteritis) occurs almost exclusively in patients over 55 years of age. The classic clinical findings are fever, anemia, high ESR, and headache. Other anifestations may include malaise, fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, sweat, and arthralgias. Headache may be associated with a tender, thickened, or nodular temporal artery. Diagnosis often is made clinically and can be confirmed by a temporal artery biopsy. Patients respond well to glucocorticoid therapy.



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Alken commented on January 04, 2025
No comments yet Still watching the pattern of exam
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Allen commented on January 04, 2025
Nice approach
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