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Free STEP3 Exam Braindumps (page: 13)

Page 12 of 202
PDF with 804 Questions

A 63-year-old Native American male, with a 6-year history of DM, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia, comes to your office as a new patient for a routine examination. He has been experiencing frequent lower back pain and headaches for which he is taking ibuprofen daily for the past 5 weeks. Moreover, he is complaining of mild fatigue. In addition, he is taking aspirin, atorvastatin, verapamil, and glipizide. His physical examination shows a blood pressure of 165/80 and heart rate of 90 bpm. In general, he was not in any distress. His funduscopic examination reveals no signs of diabetic retinopathy. Cardiac examination reveals a regular rate and rhythm with an S4 gallop. His lungs are clear and abdominal examination is unremarkable without any bruit auscultated. He also has 2+ lower extremity pitting edema. Rectal examination reveals brown stool, negative for occult blood. His laboratory results are as follows:



With regard the workup of this man's proteinuria, what diagnostic test would you perform next?

  1. serum and urine protein electrophoresis
  2. kidney biopsy
  3. complement levels
  4. antiglomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) antibody titer E. glycosylated Hgb level

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

This patient's presentation and laboratory data are consistent with nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome is typically associated with proteinuria of greater than 3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. Abnormalities commonly seen in nephrotic syndrome include hypocalcemia (due to vitamin D deficiency), low thyroxine levels (due to loss of thyroxine-binding globulin [TBG]), and microcytic, hypochromic anemia (due to transferring loss). Hypocomplementemia may be found in some forms of nephrotic syndrome, but this is not a typical finding. Hematuria is one of the components found in nephritic syndrome.

This patient has history, physical, and laboratory findings that suggest possible multiple myeloma. For example, his history is pertinent for lower back pain and headaches. Moreover, Bence-Jones protein is not usually detected by urine dipstick but will be detected during a 24-hour urine collection. This would explain why there is relatively little urine protein detected on dipstick but over 5 g on the 24-hour urine. Lastly, multiple myeloma should be considered in an older patient with unexplained anemia. Given these findings, a serum and urine protein electrophoresis would be the best test to order next. A kidney biopsy would usually be diagnostic, but is unnecessary if the electrophoresis is positive. Complement levels and anti- GBM titer would not be of any use at the present time. Checking glycosylated Hgb will inform you of the adequacy of glucose control, but will be of little use with regard to the workup of the nephrotic syndrome. This patient has a low anion gap due to the presence of unmeasured cations in the blood. In this case, they arise from circulating immunoglobulins. The fractional excretion of sodium and urea can be helpful in differentiating prerenal causes from other etiologies of acute renal failure. A split 24-hour urine for protein is helpful in determining the presence of orthostatic proteinuria. Initiation of ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers is the best option in patients with diabetic nephropathy, as these medications have been shown to slow the progression of kidney disease. The other medications listed may be used adjunctively, with an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, if adequate blood pressure control could not be achieved with monotherapy. HIV-associated nephropathy is typically associated with a collapsing glomerulopathy, a variant of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. Membranous nephropathy is associated with a number of other infections, including syphilis, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C virus. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis has also been associated with hepatitis C virus.



A 63-year-old Native American male, with a 6-year history of DM, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia, comes to your office as a new patient for a routine examination. He has been experiencing frequent lower back pain and headaches for which he is taking ibuprofen daily for the past 5 weeks. Moreover, he is complaining of mild fatigue. In addition, he is taking aspirin, atorvastatin, verapamil, and glipizide. His physical examination shows a blood pressure of 165/80 and heart rate of 90 bpm. In general, he was not in any distress. His funduscopic examination reveals no signs of diabetic retinopathy. Cardiac examination reveals a regular rate and rhythm with an S4 gallop. His lungs are clear and abdominal examination is unremarkable without any bruit auscultated. He also has 2+ lower extremity pitting edema. Rectal examination reveals brown stool, negative for occult blood. His laboratory results are as follows:



Which additional of the following would best help in the determination of the etiology of this patient's nephrotic syndrome?

  1. fractional excretion of sodium
  2. anion gap
  3. estimation of glomerular filtration rate
  4. fractional excretion of urea
  5. split 24-hour urine for protein

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

This patient's presentation and laboratory data are consistent with nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome is typically associated with proteinuria of greater than 3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. Abnormalities commonly seen in nephrotic syndrome include hypocalcemia (due to vitamin D deficiency), low thyroxine levels (due to loss of thyroxine-binding globulin [TBG]), and microcytic, hypochromic anemia (due to transferring loss). Hypocomplementemia may be found in some forms of nephrotic syndrome, but this is not a typical finding. Hematuria is one of the components found in nephritic syndrome.

This patient has history, physical, and laboratory findings that suggest possible multiple myeloma. For example, his history is pertinent for lower back pain and headaches. Moreover, Bence-Jones protein is not usually detected by urine dipstick but will be detected during a 24-hour urine collection. This would explain why there is relatively little urine protein detected on dipstick but over 5 g on the 24-hour urine. Lastly, multiple myeloma should be considered in an older patient with unexplained anemia. Given these findings, a serum and urine protein electrophoresis would be the best test to order next. A kidney biopsy would usually be diagnostic, but is unnecessary if the electrophoresis is positive. Complement levels and anti- GBM titer would not be of any use at the present time. Checking glycosylated Hgb will inform you of the adequacy of glucose control, but will be of little use with regard to the workup of the nephrotic syndrome. This patient has a low anion gap due to the presence of unmeasured cations in the blood. In this case, they arise from circulating immunoglobulins. The fractional excretion of sodium and urea can be helpful in differentiating prerenal causes from other etiologies of acute renal failure. A split 24-hour urine for protein is helpful in determining the presence of orthostatic proteinuria. Initiation of ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers is the best option in patients with diabetic nephropathy, as these medications have been shown to slow the progression of kidney disease. The other medications listed may be used adjunctively, with an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, if adequate blood pressure control could not be achieved with monotherapy. HIV-associated nephropathy is typically associated with a collapsing glomerulopathy, a variant of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. Membranous nephropathy is associated with a number of other infections, including syphilis, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C virus. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis has also been associated with hepatitis C virus.



A 63-year-old Native American male, with a 6-year history of DM, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia, comes to your office as a new patient for a routine examination. He has been experiencing frequent lower back pain and headaches for which he is taking ibuprofen daily for the past 5 weeks. Moreover, he is complaining of mild fatigue. In addition, he is taking aspirin, atorvastatin, verapamil, and glipizide. His physical examination shows a blood pressure of 165/80 and heart rate of 90 bpm. In general, he was not in any distress. His funduscopic examination reveals no signs of diabetic retinopathy. Cardiac examination reveals a regular rate and rhythm with an S4 gallop. His lungs are clear and abdominal examination is unremarkable without any bruit auscultated. He also has 2+ lower extremity pitting edema. Rectal examination reveals brown stool, negative for occult blood. His laboratory results are as follows:

Which of the following antihypertensive medications would be best implemented in patients with diabetic nephropathy?

  1. lisinopril 10 mg orally once daily
  2. clonidine 0.2 mg orally twice daily
  3. metoprolol 25 mg orally twice daily
  4. amlodipine 5 mg orally once daily
  5. hydralazine 25 mg orally three times daily

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

This patient's presentation and laboratory data are consistent with nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome is typically associated with proteinuria of greater than 3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. Abnormalities commonly seen in nephrotic syndrome include hypocalcemia (due to vitamin D deficiency), low thyroxine levels (due to loss of thyroxine-binding globulin [TBG]), and microcytic, hypochromic anemia (due to transferring loss). Hypocomplementemia may be found in some forms of nephrotic syndrome, but this is not a typical finding. Hematuria is one of the components found in nephritic syndrome.

This patient has history, physical, and laboratory findings that suggest possible multiple myeloma. For example, his history is pertinent for lower back pain and headaches. Moreover, Bence-Jones protein is not usually detected by urine dipstick but will be detected during a 24-hour urine collection. This would explain why there is relatively little urine protein detected on dipstick but over 5 g on the 24-hour urine. Lastly, multiple myeloma should be considered in an older patient with unexplained anemia. Given these findings, a serum and urine protein electrophoresis would be the best test to order next. A kidney biopsy would usually be diagnostic, but is unnecessary if the electrophoresis is positive. Complement levels and anti- GBM titer would not be of any use at the present time. Checking glycosylated Hgb will inform you of the adequacy of glucose control, but will be of little use with regard to the workup of the nephrotic syndrome. This patient has a low anion gap due to the presence of unmeasured cations in the blood. In this case, they arise from circulating immunoglobulins. The fractional excretion of sodium and urea can be helpful in differentiating prerenal causes from other etiologies of acute renal failure. A split 24-hour urine for protein is helpful in determining the presence of orthostatic proteinuria. Initiation of ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers is the best option in patients with diabetic nephropathy, as these medications have been shown to slow the progression of kidney disease. The other medications listed may be used adjunctively, with an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, if adequate blood pressure control could not be achieved with monotherapy. HIV-associated nephropathy is typically associated with a collapsing glomerulopathy, a variant of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. Membranous nephropathy is associated with a number of other infections, including syphilis, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C virus. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis has also been associated with hepatitis C virus.



A 63-year-old Native American male, with a 6-year history of DM, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia, comes to your office as a new patient for a routine examination. He has been experiencing frequent lower back pain and headaches for which he is taking ibuprofen daily for the past 5 weeks. Moreover, he is complaining of mild fatigue. In addition, he is taking aspirin, atorvastatin, verapamil, and glipizide. His physical examination shows a blood pressure of 165/80 and heart rate of 90 bpm. In general, he was not in any distress. His funduscopic examination reveals no signs of diabetic retinopathy. Cardiac examination reveals a regular rate and rhythm with an S4 gallop. His lungs are clear and abdominal examination is unremarkable without any bruit auscultated. He also has 2+ lower extremity pitting edema. Rectal examination reveals brown stool, negative for occult blood. His laboratory results are as follows:



Which of the following microscopic findings on kidney biopsy is most usually associated with HIV infection?

  1. pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis
  2. focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (collapsing variant)
  3. membranous nephropathy
  4. membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
  5. anti-GBM disease

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

This patient's presentation and laboratory data are consistent with nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome is typically associated with proteinuria of greater than 3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. Abnormalities commonly seen in nephrotic syndrome include hypocalcemia (due to vitamin D deficiency), low thyroxine levels (due to loss of thyroxine-binding globulin [TBG]), and microcytic, hypochromic anemia (due to transferring loss). Hypocomplementemia may be found in some forms of nephrotic syndrome, but this is not a typical finding. Hematuria is one of the components found in nephritic syndrome.
This patient has history, physical, and laboratory findings that suggest possible multiple myeloma. For example, his history is pertinent for lower back pain and headaches. Moreover, Bence-Jones protein is not usually detected by urine dipstick but will be detected during a 24-hour urine collection. This would explain why there is relatively little urine protein detected on dipstick but over 5 g on the 24-hour urine. Lastly, multiple myeloma should be considered in an older patient with unexplained anemia. Given these findings, a serum and urine protein electrophoresis would be the best test to order next. A kidney biopsy would usually be diagnostic, but is unnecessary if the electrophoresis is positive. Complement levels and anti- GBM titer would not be of any use at the present time. Checking glycosylated Hgb will inform you of the adequacy of glucose control, but will be of little use with regard to the workup of the nephrotic syndrome. This patient has a low anion gap due to the presence of unmeasured cations in the blood. In this case, they arise from circulating immunoglobulins. The fractional excretion of sodium and urea can be helpful in differentiating prerenal causes from other etiologies of acute renal failure. A split 24-hour urine for protein is helpful in determining the presence of orthostatic proteinuria. Initiation of ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers is the best option in patients with diabetic nephropathy, as these medications have been shown to slow the progression of kidney disease. The other medications listed may be used adjunctively, with an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, if adequate blood pressure control could not be achieved with monotherapy. HIV-associated nephropathy is typically associated with a collapsing glomerulopathy, a variant of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. Membranous nephropathy is associated with a number of other infections, including syphilis, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C virus. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis has also been associated with hepatitis C virus.






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