CFA CFA I Exam Prep
CFA Level I Chartered Financial Analyst (Page 127 )

• A: CEO-sponsored formal policy — demonstrates executive support, but sponsorship at one point in time may not sustain commitment.
• B: Security awareness training — primarily improves employee behavior, not senior management commitment.
• C: Periodic alignment reviews — ongoing reviews show that security remains relevant, supports business priorities, and uses resources appropriately.
• D: Senior management signoff on the strategy — useful for governance and accountability, but signoff is generally a one-time event.

1. The original app version exists.
2. You create and publish a new version, so there are now two versions.
3. When you restore the previous version, Power Apps does not delete or overwrite the newer version. Instead, it creates another version based on the restored one.

• Original version
• Newly created and published version
• New version created by the restore operation

• Verifies the sender’s identity using their private key.
• Confirms the transaction was not altered after signing.
• Provides evidence that the signer approved or originated the transaction.

• Digital certificates: Bind an identity to a public key, but do not themselves prove that a specific transaction was signed.
• Encrypted passwords: Protect confidentiality or authentication, but generally do not provide transaction-level nonrepudiation.
• One-time passwords: Authenticate a user for a session or transaction, but usually do not provide durable proof of who authorized the electronic record.

• Security controls
• Processes and procedures
• Compliance evidence
• Performance against contractual requirements

• Service-level agreement (SLA): Defines expected service performance, such as uptime and response times.
• Memorandum of agreement (MOA): Documents a general agreement between parties, but does not necessarily provide audit rights.
• Supply chain analysis: Identifies risks across suppliers and dependencies, but is not a contractual mechanism for reviewing vendor controls.

• Virtual introductions: Team members share their role, experience, location, and working preferences.
• Online icebreakers: Short, informal activities such as “two truths and a lie.”
• Virtual coffee chats: Pair team members for informal, non-project conversations.
• Collaborative problem-solving: The team works together on an online puzzle or scenario.
• Retrospectives: The team discusses what went well, what did not, and how to improve.
• Working-agreement sessions: The team agrees on response times, meeting etiquette, communication channels, and handoffs.
• Recognition sessions: Members acknowledge one another’s contributions.
• Remote workshops: Teams jointly create plans, diagrams, or schedules using collaboration tools.

• Create a CodeCommit repository in the secondary Region.
• Use CodeBuild to run a Git mirror operation from the primary repository to the secondary repository.
• Use EventBridge to detect relevant repository events, such as a pull request being merged.
• Invoke a Lambda function, which starts the CodeBuild project.

• B: Amazon S3 is object storage, not a Git repository that developers can use as a CodeCommit remote.
• C: CodeArtifact is intended for packages and artifacts, not source-code repository mirroring.
• D: An AWS Cloud9 environment is not an appropriate automated replication mechanism and would require manual or persistent infrastructure management.

Recommended process

1. Access each switch’s terminal.
2. Use help to identify available commands.
3. Use the MAC table command, such as:

text 
   show mac-address-table

1. Use VLAN information, such as:

text 
   show vlan

1. Use interface information, such as:

text 
   show ip interface brief

1. Record each device’s:

• B. Conditional access policies

• D. Additional authentication factors

• Disciplinary actions: Punish users but do not prevent credential-based attacks.
• More regular account audits: Useful for finding inactive or excessive accounts, but less direct for stopping unauthorized logins.
• Content filtering: Primarily controls web or email content, not authentication.
• Review of permissions: Reduces privilege but may not stop unauthorized account access.

• A — Use a custom controller: An Apex class can contain the page’s logic.
• C — Use a standard controller with extensions: The standard controller provides basic CRUD behavior, while an extension adds custom logic.
• E — Use a standard controller: Useful when the page works mainly with one Salesforce object and needs standard functionality.

• A page with no controller for static or controller-free content.
• A custom controller with extensions; extensions are not limited only to standard controllers.

• Group1 — security-enabled: Eligible.
• Group2 — mail-enabled and security-enabled: Eligible because it is still a security group.
• Group3 — Microsoft 365 group: Not eligible for group-based licensing.
• Group4 — Microsoft 365 group, not security-enabled: Not eligible.

• Disable high concurrency: Changes workspace-wide behavior and is not the targeted way to isolate these workloads.
• Modify the number of executors: Adjusts capacity and performance, but does not provide workload isolation.
• Set the default environment: Controls libraries and runtime configuration, not compute isolation.

• An Adj-SID does not necessarily need manual configuration.
• It can often be dynamically allocated by the router, although manual configuration may also be possible.
• The adjacency information is advertised through the IGP, such as IS-IS or OSPF.

• It is identified by an Adj-SID.
• It represents a particular adjacency of a node.
• Its meaning is generally local to the advertising node; unlike a Node-SID, it is not a globally reusable instruction across the network.

• Which host first communicated with the suspected malicious source
• Whether that host initiated suspicious traffic or merely received it
• Which other hosts show evidence of infection, such as connections from the originating host
• Which hosts have no related suspicious activity and are therefore clean

• An outbound connection to a suspicious external address
• A downloaded or executed malicious file
• Later lateral connections from that host to other internal systems
• Firewall logs showing the direction and timing of the traffic

• Third-party attestation: Provides independent validation, but is typically periodic and performed by an external party.
• Penetration testing: Simulates attacks to identify exploitable vulnerabilities; it does not primarily track compliance.
• Vulnerability scans: Identify technical weaknesses, but do not provide a detailed review of procedures or compliance activities.

• Attack simulator — Used to run phishing and other attack simulations for user awareness training.
• Hunting — Used to proactively query security data and investigate potential threats.
• Incidents — Used to investigate and manage related alerts and active security events.

• Azure Machine Learning Studio is designed to build, test, train, and deploy machine-learning models, including predictive analytics.
• Azure Cosmos DB is a globally distributed NoSQL database. It can store data used by an AI solution, but it is not the primary service for developing and deploying predictive models.
• Therefore, the appropriate recommendation is Azure Machine Learning Studio, as shown in Question 15.

xml 
<apex:page> 
    <apex:stylesheet value="{!URLFOR($Resource.MyStyles, 'styles/main.css')}" /> 
</apex:page>

• <apex:includeScript> is for JavaScript.
• <apex:includeStyle> is not a valid Visualforce component.
• <apex:require> is not the Visualforce tag used to load CSS.

• Dark web: A place where leaked credentials may be sold or shared, not usually the original source.
• Threat feeds: Collections of intelligence about threats, not a typical leakage source.
• State actors: A type of attacker, not an accidental corporate disclosure source.
• Vulnerability databases: Track known vulnerabilities, rather than leaked credentials.

• 24 cores: Available in the Business Critical provisioned-compute configurations.
• Approximately 124 GB memory: Matches the memory capacity of the relevant Business Critical hardware configuration.
• More than 50,000 IOPS: Business Critical uses local SSD storage and provides the high I/O performance required here.
• 500 GB storage: Well within the tier’s supported capacity.

• Premium: The DTU-based Premium tier does not provide the required combination of compute, memory, and I/O characteristics.
• Hyperscale: Hyperscale is primarily intended for very large databases and independent storage scaling. It is not the best match for these specific high-memory and high-IOPS requirements.

• Maximum response and resolution times
• Expected uptime or availability
• Performance requirements
• Escalation procedures
• Consequences for failing to meet requirements

• SOW: Defines a project’s scope, tasks, deliverables, and schedule.
• MOA: Documents specific responsibilities agreed upon by two parties.
• MOU: Records a general understanding or intent to cooperate.

• True positive: The scan reports a vulnerability that really exists.
• False positive: The scan reports a vulnerability that does not exist.
• True negative: The scan correctly reports no vulnerability.
• False negative: The scan fails to detect a vulnerability that is actually present.

• Virus signatures: Primarily associated with antivirus or antimalware tools.
• Security agent deployment: Usually handled by endpoint-management or endpoint-security platforms.
• Vulnerability scanning: Performed by vulnerability-assessment tools, although a SIEM may ingest their results.

• Accept: Acknowledge the risk and take no additional action.
• Transfer: Shift the risk or financial impact to another party, such as through insurance or a contract.
• Mitigate: Reduce the likelihood or impact using controls, such as firewalls, training, or backups.
• Avoid: Eliminate the activity that creates the risk.

• SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): Commonly used for enterprise SSO between an identity provider and cloud applications. It sends signed authentication assertions to the service provider.
• RADIUS: Primarily used for centralized authentication to network devices, VPNs, and wireless networks.
• EAP: An authentication framework commonly used with network access technologies; it is not typically the SSO protocol for SaaS applications.
• OpenID: Related to identity authentication, but traditional enterprise SSO questions involving cloud applications generally expect SAML. OpenID Connect is a newer authentication layer built on OAuth 2.0.

• A script of cloud CLI commands: IaC because the commands can be saved, reviewed, versioned, and rerun consistently.
• Manually run curl commands: Not necessarily IaC; they are manual actions unless organized into an automated script.
• A sequence of REST requests passed to an API: Could represent automation, but the wording does not explicitly say they are stored and executed as reusable code.
• Commands entered into a cloud console: Manual operation, not IaC.

• Ramen is a Linux worm associated with Red Hat Linux 6.2 and 7.0 systems.
• It spreads by scanning randomly generated IP addresses using tools such as synscan.
• It exploits vulnerable network services, including web-related services, and may leave malicious files or altered web content.
• The tar.gz file is also a clue because it is a common Linux archive/package format.

• Code Red: Primarily targeted Microsoft IIS servers running Windows.
• LoveLetter: Spread mainly through email attachments.
• Nimda: A Windows-based worm that spread through email, web servers, and network shares.

• Required response and resolution times
• Availability or uptime targets
• Performance standards
• Support obligations
• Remedies or penalties for failing to meet the terms

• SOW (Statement of Work): Defines the project’s scope, tasks, deliverables, and schedule.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Describes agreed responsibilities between parties, often for a specific activity.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a mutual understanding or intention, usually less formal than a contract.

• SAS (Serial Attached SCSI):

• SSD (solid-state drive):

• Custom domains are supported.
• It provides dedicated compute instances.
• It offers enough storage for the applications.
• It supports multiple instances with load balancing between them.
• It is less expensive than higher tiers such as Premium.

• Free and Shared use shared compute and have limited storage, so they cannot meet the dedicated-instance requirement.
• Basic provides dedicated compute and custom domains, but the question’s requirement for the broader multi-instance/load-balancing capability is intended to point to Standard.

• JDBC
• SnowSQL
• Snowflake Web Interface (UI)
• ODBC
• Python connector

• Deficiency found before patient use: usually does not require an adverse-event report because no patient exposure occurred.
• Event caused solely by the patient’s condition: may not be reportable if the device did not contribute.
• Malfunction protection operated correctly: generally exempt when the device’s safety mechanism worked as intended and prevented harm.

• Match found: ServiceNow updates the existing target record.
• No match found: ServiceNow normally creates a new target record.
• No Transform Map is created or deleted based on whether a match is found.

• B. Deploy to a SageMaker endpoint: This is needed for SageMaker-hosted models, not for a model intended to be used directly in Amazon Bedrock.
• C. Register with SageMaker Model Registry: SageMaker Model Registry is unrelated to invoking custom models in Bedrock.
• D. Grant access in Bedrock: Access permissions may be necessary, but they do not replace the required provisioned capacity.

• terraform init is normally required first, especially for a new or changed working directory. It installs providers/modules and configures the backend.
• terraform plan previews the proposed changes.
• terraform apply applies those changes. It also creates a plan internally if you have not supplied a saved plan.

text 
terraform init 
terraform validate       # optional but recommended 
terraform plan 
terraform apply

• Customer needs: Primary focus in agile; guides prioritization and decision-making.
• Organization’s needs: Important constraints, but processes should be tailored when they create waste.
• Agile lead/project manager: Their role is to facilitate value delivery, not prioritize their own preferences.

• Design Studio > Emails ? create an email-template folder
• Design Studio > Landing Pages ? create a landing-page-template folder
• Add the relevant assets to each folder
• Right-click the folder and choose Share Folder
• Select the destination workspaces

• IRR assumes that interim cash flows can be reinvested at the project’s own IRR. This may be unrealistic, especially when the IRR is very high.
• MIRR assumes reinvestment at a specified rate, usually the company’s cost of capital or another realistic reinvestment rate.

• B: MIRR does not specifically favour projects with long payback periods.
• C: MIRR and IRR can rank competing projects differently.
• D: MIRR is not always higher than IRR; it may be higher or lower depending on the cash flows and reinvestment rate.

• The message came from the claimed sender (authentication)
• The message was not altered (integrity)
• The sender cannot easily deny sending it (non-repudiation)

• Attackers can send unsigned phishing emails.
• Attackers may compromise a legitimate account and send signed malicious emails.
• Users may still be tricked by a validly signed message.

• Low: Applies system, tenant, and user-based suppressions. Activity from locations commonly used by that user is more likely to be suppressed.
• Medium: Applies system and user suppressions.
• High: Applies only system suppressions, so more unusual-location activity generates alerts.

• A — If there is no demand, there should be no production.

• B — Not all sales equal profit.

• C — Stocking up on inventory is bad for business.

• D — All costs, except materials, are considered fixed.

• E — Departments should operate at full capacity regardless of bottlenecks.

• A local network gateway represents an on-premises network—its address space and VPN device information—for an Azure Site-to-Site VPN connection.
• It does not control which connection types are allowed between Azure web servers and database servers.
• It is also unnecessary when both server groups are in the same Azure virtual network.

• Identifies which user or department owns the device
• Supports inventory and compliance requirements
• Enables tracking of lost, stolen, retired, or unauthorized devices
• Helps enforce security controls such as mobile-device management and secure configuration

• Act as the default gateway for devices in that VLAN
• Route traffic between different VLANs
• Provide management access to the switch

text 
interface vlan 10 
 ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0

Correct sequence

1. Merge Sales_Region with Sales_Manager using an inner join

1. Merge Region_Manager with Manager using an inner join

1. Merge Sales_Region and Region_Manager using a right join as a new query

• Installing software
• Applying configuration changes
• Calling PowerShell scripts
• Running setup or customization commands

cmd 
powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass -File C:\Scripts\ConfigureVM.ps1

• GPO logon script: Runs only when a user logs on and depends on domain/GPO processing.
• GPO startup script: Runs during startup, but requires the VM to be domain joined and receives the applicable GPO.
• Place scripts in a VHD: Merely makes the scripts available; it does not automatically execute them.

• Type 1 hypervisor: Runs directly on the physical hardware (“bare metal”).
• Type 2 hypervisor: Runs inside the host OS as an application.

• Bare-metal installation: Type 1
• Local management only: Not a defining characteristic
• Specific hardware requirements: Not the key distinction

• Customer information must not be revealed ? PII Detection
• Malicious instructions embedded in images/documents must be blocked ? Prompt Shields

• If the question allows multiple selections, choose PII Detection and Prompt Shields.
• If it requires one selection specifically for the image-based threat, choose Prompt Shields.