Refer to the exhibit. Many faults have occurred in the ACI environment and a sample of them needs to be examined.

Which API call retrieves faults 31 through 45?

GET https://apic-ip-address/api/class/faultInfo.json\?order-by=faultInst.severity| desc&page=1&page-size=15
GET https://apic-ip-address/api/class/faultInfo.json\?order-by=faultInst.severity| desc&page=2&page-size=15
GET https://apic-ip-address/api/class/faultInfo.json\?order-by=faultInst.severity|desc&page-size=30
GET https://apic-ip-address/api/class/faultInfo.json\?order-by=faultInst.severity| desc&page=2&page-size=30

Answer(s): B

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 41

Refer to the exhibit. The cURL POST request creates an OAuth access token for authentication with FDM API requests.

What is the purpose of the file “@token_data” that cURL is handling?

This file is a container to log possible error responses in the request.
This file is given as input to store the access token received from FDM.
This file is used to send authentication-related headers.
This file contains raw data that is needed for token authentication.

Answer(s): D

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 42

DRAG DROP (Drag and Drop is not supported)
Drag and drop the expressions from below onto the code to implement error handling. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

See Explanation section for answer.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

if response ==201 else:

Show Answer Next Question

User report that they can no longer able to process transactions with the online ordering application, and the logging dashboard is displaying these messages.

Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.123 EST 2020 [FRONTEND] INFO: Incoming request to add item to cart from user 45834534858
Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.247 EST 2020 [BACKEND] INFO: Attempting to add item to cart
Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.250 EST 2020 [BACKEND] ERROR: Failed to add item: MYSQLDB ERROR: Connection refused

What is causing the problem seen in these log messages?

The database server container has crashed.
The backend process is overwhelmed with too many transactions.
The backend is not authorized to commit to the database.
The user is not authorized to add the item to their cart.

Answer(s): A

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 44

Refer to the exhibit. An Intersight API is being used to query RackUnit resources that have a tag keyword set to “Site”.

What is the expected output of this command?

list of all resources that have a tag with the keyword “Site”
error message because the Value field was not specified
error message because the tag filter should be lowercase
list of all sites that contain RackUnit tagged compute resources

Answer(s): A

Show Answer Next Question

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350-901 AI Verifications

Alex on: March 02, 2025
Great material
UNITED KINGDOM

lunch_break_labs on: June 18, 2026
Three weeks of intense studying and endless brain dumps left me exhausted but I finally passed this exam. It was very hard and I had to rely on the AI Assistant and real exam questions to make it through.
Australia

RetakeKing2025 on: March 27, 2026
The braindumps and AI Assistant were key but this exam was very hard. I wasn't sure I'd pass but they helped with the real exam questions.
Spain

wei_syseng on: May 11, 2026
Finally done with this challenging exam and barely passed after relying heavily on brain dumps. The AI Assistant helped a bit with the stress but the real exam questions were very hard.
Belgium

zt_zealot on: May 08, 2026
Three weeks of intense study and the brain dumps still couldn't prepare me for how very hard this exam turned out to be. Real exam quetions were unlike what I encountered in practice tests and surprised me with unexpected twists.
Hong Kong

JustPassedBro on: April 05, 2026
Underestimated this exam and had to grind through endless exam dumps just to get through it. Real exam questions felt very hard but the AI Assistant helped a bit.
Austria

YoutubeAndPray on: June 12, 2026
This exam was very hard and I wouldn't have made it without some exam dumps. Real exam questions were a lifesaver even though I'm exhausted.
Ghana

sam_azure_guy on: June 05, 2026
Finally done with this exam and it was no joke. The combination of brain dumps and real exam questions was the only reason I scraped through.
Spain

hamid_certguy on: June 08, 2026
Underestimated this exam at first and had to grind throgh braindumps to make it happen. Real exam questions were very hard without extra prep material.
Philippines

JustPassedBro on: June 01, 2026
The brain dumps were a relief but this exam was still very hard. Very stressful trying to find real exam questions that aligned.
Kenya

Kapil on: June 06, 2026
Good to get idea of question asked
Udaipur, India

j_hernandez_it on: June 21, 2026
Three weeks of staring at brain dumps adn this exam was still very hard. Real exam questions pushed me to the edge.
South Africa

SecOpsGuy on: April 19, 2026
Spent several nights going over exam dumps and real exam questions yet this exam was very hard and stressful to get through.
Czech Republic

CoffeeAndCerts on: May 18, 2026
Spent weeks on prep but this exam was very hard adn the real exam questions caught me off guard. The braindumps I used felt outdated in some parts.
United States

late_night_labs_l on: June 22, 2026
Real exam questions caught me off guard as this exam was very hard even with the braindumps.
Portugal

TerraformTom on: June 02, 2026
Spent weeks stressing over this exam but teh dumps helped fill some gaps. It was still very hard and the real exam questions were tougher than expected.
Norway

json_jock on: May 18, 2026
Passed it after using braindumps and the AI Assistant because the exam was very hard. Thought I would fail halfway throgh but thankfully I managed to clear it.
Canada

it_dad_of_3 on: June 22, 2026
This challenging exam took more out of me than expected but the braindumps and the AI Assistant kept me on track. I wasn't confident I'd pass without them.
Brazil

always_learning_a on: June 11, 2026
Very hard exam that caught me off guard so I had to rely heavily on exam dumps to get through. teh AI Assistant helped with the real exam questions but it was still a grind.
Pakistan

WhyCertify_lol on: April 20, 2026
Passed it after a couple of tries with teh help of exam dumps since this exam was very hard. Real exam questions felt way tougher than expected.
UAE

0day_ops on: June 04, 2026
Hugely stressed from the challenging exam but brain dumps helped me barely pass.
Canada

commute_studier on: June 16, 2026
Spent weeks trying to understand the challenging exam content but the exam dumps really helped. The real exam questions were very hard without them.
Vietnam

ITpro_Sarah on: June 17, 2026
The exam was very hard and the real exam questions caught me off guard on my first attempt. I found the braindumps and AI Assistant very helpful on the second try.
United Kingdom

PassedByLuck_K on: May 31, 2026
Spent weeks with brain dumps and just cleared this very hard exam on my second try. teh AI Assistant and real exam questions somehow made it manageable.
Canada

SleepDeprivedPass on: April 12, 2026
The AI Assistant was helpful alongside the braindumps for this challenging exam. Just finished and wasn't sure I'd make it.
South Africa

barely_passed_lol on: April 07, 2026
This exam was very hard but using the exam dumps helped make it manageable. Without them I doubt I would have made it through.
United Kingdom

5igma_s on: June 06, 2026
Passed it after weeks of stress using teh brain dumps and the AI Assistant because this exam was very hard.
Bangladesh

PassedByLuck_K on: April 20, 2026
The exam was very hard and I couldn't have passed without relying heavily on dumps. Stressful but the real exam questions from the dumps made all the difference.
Australia

fatima_netsec on: April 01, 2026
Took two attempts to clear this very hard exam and resorted to teh dumps in the end. The braindumps covered many real exam questions I struggled with during my first try.
Argentina

Hema on: June 15, 2026
It's a very useful website to practice questions
Chennai, India

GrindNeverStops on: April 09, 2026
Started the challenging exam thinking it would be manageable but quickly realized I was wrong adn had to rely on exam dumps to get through. The real exam questions were tricky yet using brain dumps helped piece it all together finally.
India

priya_devops on: March 27, 2026
Underestimated the exam and had to grind through endless braindumps to stand a chance. Real exam questions were trickier than expected so the dumps really helped way more than I'd thought.
Indonesia

raj_cloudguru on: April 25, 2026
Spent weeks going through braindumps and still found the exam very hard. The real exam questions were a beast but dumps helped.
Australia

CertOrBust_2025 on: May 17, 2026
Underestimated this exam and had to grind through countless braindumps to finally pass it on my second try. Real exam questions and teh AI Assistant were key but it was still a very hard challenge.
Lebanon

GCPengineer_T on: May 08, 2026
Spent weeks digging through brain dumps and finally squeaked by this exam but it was very hard and stressful.
France

haruto_devops on: April 03, 2026
teh exam dumps didn't match the real exam questions at all and it was very hard to adapt on the spot. Spent weeks with the AI Assistant but it still felt like a challenging exam.
Ghana

jason_helpdesk on: June 21, 2026
Thought I might not pass the exam but the AI Assistant adn braindumps helped me scrape through. Real exam questions were very hard this time around.
Ireland

VMware_Vince on: April 18, 2026
The exam was very hard and I underestimated it at first. Spent extra hours going through exam dumps and real exam questions to finally pass.
Japan

tryhard_techie on: June 19, 2026
The AI Assistant adn braindumps were key to passing this exam on my second try. It felt very hard and I wasn't sure I'd make it.
Saudi Arabia

commute_studier on: June 08, 2026
teh exam questions were unexpectedly tricky and even with the exam dumps helping me prep it was a tough ride. The AI Assistant gave some insight but mostly it was about grinding through this challenging exam.
Hungary

ssh_hero on: June 03, 2026
Spent weeks on this one and it was a very hard exm even with brain dumps. Real exam questions were challenging but somehow made it through.
Nigeria

netm4p_n on: April 06, 2026
Spent weeks with braindumps and the AI Assistant before facing this exam. Very hard but I managed to pass.
Hong Kong

sam_azure_guy on: April 11, 2026
Spent weeks stressing over this exam and brain dumps were my last resort. Managed to pass but it was very hard.
Indonesia

0day_ops on: April 26, 2026
Real exam questions completely caught me off guard and the braindumps weren't much help either. Spent weeks preparing only to realize this exam was very hard and nothing like what I expected.
Saudi Arabia

VMware_Vince on: June 24, 2026
Underestimated this exam and spent too many nights grinding throgh braindumps. Glad the exam dumps had real questions or I could have been stuck.
Colombia

LabRatTech on: May 02, 2026
This exam was very hard adn the brain dumps were my only lifeline. Three attempts later the score finally showed what I needed.
Austria

TestDayJitters on: April 11, 2026
Thought this exm would be easy but it was very hard. Had to rely heavily on exam dumps and the AI Assistant to finally pass.
Canada

nerd_by_day on: June 02, 2026
Spent weeks going throgh the braindumps and real exam questions for this exam because it was very hard to grasp. The prep materials made it manageable but it took a lot of effort.
South Africa

3rdTimeCharm_IT on: April 26, 2026
Thought this exam would be a breeze but it was very hard and I ended up grinding through a pile of braindumps. Cleared it eventually but it was definitely a challenge.
Malaysia

CloudCert_2026 on: April 15, 2026
Took two attempts to pass this exam after underestimating it the first time despite using all those braindumps. The real exam questions were way tougher than expected.
Pakistan

AI Explanation - verified by User5260 on: June 24, 2026
Question 36:
Question 36 asks which items can be customized via the Basic Configuration UI 16 module. Based on how UI16 is used for branding and basic UI layout, the three that can be customized are:

Banner Image: Branding/banner shown in the UI.

Browser Tab Title: Text shown in the browser tab.

Form Header Size: Size/height of the header on forms.

Why the others aren’t correct:

Record Number Format: Typically configured under numbering/record-creation settings, not UI16.

System Date Format: A localization/date-format setting, usually handled outside UI16.

So the correct choices are: Banner Image, Browser Tab Title, and Form Header Size.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User9195 on: June 14, 2026
Question 17:
Question 17 focuses on preventing pipeline and forecast distortion when reps create opportunities after they’re closed/won.
Key points:

Problem: Opportunities created in or after the closed/won stage inflate forecasts and mislead pipeline reports.

Correct solutions:

- A: Create a report that displays opportunities where the closed date is less than or equal to the created date. This flags data-quality issues where an opportunity was created after it should have closed. - C: Use a workflow rule to email sales management when an opportunity is created in the closed/won stage. This provides an immediate alert to governance when improper records are created.

Why not:

- B: Automatically updating to the first stage disguises the issue and can corrupt the sales process; it doesn’t prevent the root problem. - D: Running the pipeline report is a monitoring activity, not a preventive or corrective measure.
Answer: A and C.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User9395 on: June 04, 2026
Question 48:
Short take: Yes, the tagging approach can be used to show or hide questions based on answers.
Why: In VoC design, Tagging is one of the methods described for conditional display. You tag questions and configure the survey logic so that when a user selects a certain answer, only questions with the corresponding tag are shown (and others are hidden). This effectively controls visibility by answer.
What to keep in mind:

It requires proper configuration in the VoC designer to tie the answer to a tag and to the display logic.

Tagging is a metadata approach; you’re using tags as triggers for visibility, not just for organization.

Example: If Q1 answer is “Yes,” show questions tagged with “Yes-trigger”; if “No,” show those tagged with “No-trigger.”
If you want, I can compare this with the other two methods (client-side routing and piping) and explain when to use each.
Karachi, Pakistan

AI Explanation - verified by User1143 on: June 20, 2026
Question 3:
The expected output is 4.
Reasoning:

Start: x = [0, 1, 2]

x.insert(0, 1) inserts 1 at index 0 ? x becomes [1, 0, 1, 2]

del x[1] removes the element at index 1 (which is 0) ? x becomes [1, 1, 2]

print(sum(x)) computes 1 + 1 + 2 = 4 and prints 4 (with a newline).

Harlow, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User9195 on: June 14, 2026
Question 37:
Question 37 asks how to automatically email the shipping department with the products on the opportunity when the stage becomes “sampling.”

Core concept: You need to display a list of related records (the OpportunityLineItems) in the email. HTML templates support basic merges but cannot iterate over related lists. Visualforce email templates can loop through child records and render a dynamic list.

Therefore, the best approach is to trigger a workflow rule on the Opportunity and use a Visualforce email template bound to the Opportunity to list its products.

Correct answer: A — Create it on the opportunity using a Visualforce email template.
Why the others are less suitable:

“Opportunity Product” as the source or HTML templates: these don’t readily provide a dynamic, ordered list of all products on the opportunity in the email.

Visualforce on Opportunity Product or HTML templates generally won’t give you a clean, complete listing of all OpportunityLineItems for that Opportunity in the email content.

Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User6656 on: June 24, 2026
Question 1:
Question 1: The correct choice is Record Type (option C).

Why: If users see different picklist options for the Opportunity field based on the opportunity kind, those options are controlled by the record type. Each record type can have its own subset of values for a picklist, so the same field can show different options depending on which record type is selected.

How to implement:

- Go to Setup > Object Manager > Opportunity > Record Types. - Edit the relevant record type (or create a new one). - In that record type, adjust the picklist values for the field (often via a “Picklists Available” or similar section) so only the desired values are shown for that type.

Quick tip: If you’re using a global value set, you still control per-type availability via the record-type configuration. Ensure the field is visible on the relevant page layouts for each type.

In short, per-opportunity picklist options are determined by the record type, not by a field, lookup filter, or a global value set alone.
Kolhapur, India

AI Explanation - verified by User9195 on: June 14, 2026
Question 45:
Question 45 asks for a targeted way to let sales directors edit opportunity fields only when the stage is Negotiation/Review, while sales reps cannot edit at that stage.

Correct answer: C

Why the others are not suitable:

A: Workflow cannot grant or revoke field-level editing rights. It automates records, not permissions.

B: Field-level security is set per profile/permission set and isn’t dynamically driven by a record’s stage.

D: Using Modify All on the Opportunity object is overly broad and bypasses security/sharing controls.

Why C fits:

A validation rule can enforce access based on the record’s stage and a user-specific permission. Create a custom permission (e.g., Edit_Opportunity_Fields_During_NegReview) and assign it to the sales directors. The validation rule would block edits to the targeted fields when StageName = 'Negotiation/Review' unless the user has the custom permission. Directors would have the permission to edit at that stage, while reps would be blocked.

Implementation outline:

Create a Custom Permission (e.g., Edit_Opportunity_Fields_During_NegReview).

Create a Validation Rule on Opportunity that triggers when StageName = 'Negotiation/Review' AND NOT $Permission.Edit_Opportunity_Fields_During_NegReview.

Assign the permission to the Sales Directors (via a permission set or direct profile).

Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User1801 on: June 10, 2026
Question 19:
Question 19 asks whether including a Storage Area Network (SAN) meets the goal of a highly available streaming web app with constant user experience and data stored in the geographic location nearest to the user. Correct answer: B (No).
Why SAN doesn’t meet the goal:

A SAN is centralized storage used by servers in a data center. It provides high-performance storage within a single site, not geo-distribution or edge delivery.

It does not inherently provide data locality near end users or edge caching to reduce latency for streaming.

High availability across regions and a consistent streaming experience for users worldwide require geo-distributed deployment, load balancing, and content delivery at the edge.

What to use instead:

Use a Content Delivery Network (CDN) to serve streaming content from edge locations close to users.

Store data in a geo-distributed or multi-region setup (e.g., Azure Storage with geo-redundant options) and deploy your app across multiple regions.

Combine CDN with multi-region deployments and appropriate storage redundancy to meet both availability and latency requirements.

In short: SAN is not suitable for nearest-to-user data storage or global low-latency streaming; CDN and geo-distributed storage are the right approaches.
Alappuzha, India

AI Explanation - verified by User8699 on: June 16, 2026
Question 14:
Here’s how to think about Question 14 and why these permissions meet the requirements.

What you want to allow:

- Developers can deploy items to Development and Test workspaces. - Developers cannot deploy to Production. - Developers can view items in Production. - Least privilege.

The three permissions that fit:

- Admin access to the deployment pipeline (B): Grants the necessary control to manage the deployment pipeline itself. This helps developers participate in deployments without granting broad workspace rights. - Contributor access to the Development and Test workspaces (E): Allows deploying items into Development and Test, fulfilling the deployment capability requirement. - Viewer access to the Production workspace (D): Lets developers view Production content without giving them deploy rights to Production.
Why not the others:

Build permission to the production semantic models (A) would enable deploying to Production, violating the “no Production deployments” rule.

Viewer access to Development and Test (C) is not needed for deployment to those stages.

Contributor access to Production (F) would enable deployments to Production, again violating the requirement.

Note: The answer key on the page shows B and E, but logically you also need D to satisfy “view items in Production.” If you want, I can walk through how to configure these in the Fabric deployment pipelines UI.
Medellín, Colombia

AI Explanation - verified by User6170 on: June 15, 2026
Question 11:
The correct choice is D: Controlled access at the company headquarters.
Why D is correct:

This question targets basic data security foundations. Controlling who can physically enter the premises reduces the risk of unauthorized access to paper files, old disks, and servers where personal data may reside. Physical access controls are a first line of defense and support higher-level controls (digital access, monitoring, etc.) as part of a defense-in-depth approach.

Implementing controlled access helps ensure that only authorized personnel can reach sensitive areas, which is essential for protecting personal information stored in physical form.

Why the other options are less appropriate as the main plan:

A (Customer communication): Important for breach notification after an incident, but it doesn’t prevent access or protect data on-site.

B (Employee access to electronic storage): While relevant, granting access to only Anton and Kenneth creates a single point of failure and neglects the broader need for least-privilege and robust physical security.

C (Employee advisement regarding legal matters): Important for governance, but not a direct security control for protecting data on-site.

In short, start with strong physical access controls at the headquarters, then layer in appropriate electronic access controls and governance. If you want, I can walk through how this ties into the broader privacy program.
Curitiba, Brazil

AI Explanation - verified by User1113 on: June 05, 2026
Question 1:

Answer: B (False)

Explanation: The terraform.tfstate file is a snapshot Terraform uses to map your configuration to real resources. It does not always stay perfectly in sync with the live infrastructure. Drift can occur if resources are changed outside Terraform or manipulated directly. You can reconcile this with commands like terraform plan (to see what would change) and terraform refresh (to update the state). The state stored in a backend reflects the last known state, not a guaranteed real-time reflection of reality. See Terraform state documentation for details.

Gurugram, India

AI Explanation - verified by User5722 on: June 30, 2026
Question 12:
The correct answer is "Only 1" (Option D).
Why:

In Salesforce, a user has exactly one Profile. The profile defines the baseline permissions and access (objects, fields, apps, etc.).

A user cannot have multiple profiles. However, you can grant additional permissions using Permission Sets—these are additive and do not replace the profile.

If different baseline access is needed for another task, you would create/clone a different profile for another user, not assign multiple profiles to the same user.

Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User9195 on: June 14, 2026
Question 39:
Question 39 asks how to verify that the large set of accounts and contacts in NTO are still accurate and still at their respective companies.

Correct answer: A — Use a data enrichment tool to verify account and contact data is up-to-date.

Why this is correct:

Data enrichment tools automatically refresh core fields (company, address, phone, etc.) from authoritative sources and flag records that are stale or misaligned. This scales well to 20,000+ accounts and 75,000+ contacts.

Why the other options are less suitable:

B: Mass emailing contacts to capture bounces tests deliverability, not whether the contact is still with the company or whether core data is accurate.

C: A workflow for owners to manually confirm data is not scalable for such a large dataset and relies on human effort.

D: Stay-in-Touch (Data.com) Emailing contacts can help maintain relationships, but it doesn’t inherently ensure data accuracy across all fields and can be less scalable; enrichment provides a more reliable, automated refresh of data.

Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User4186 on: July 01, 2026
Question 19:

Answer: No.

Why: Achieving a 99.99% SLA for virtual machines in Azure requires deployment across two or more Availability Zones (AZs) with at least two VMs, typically behind a load balancer. The solution in question uses two VMs but only one AZ, which does not meet the multi-AZ requirement for 99.99% availability. Also, one VM cannot span multiple AZs, so the stated setup is not valid for meeting the goal. To meet the goal, deploy at least two VMs across two AZs (one per zone) behind a load balancer, and ensure storage is zone-redundant. This aligns with Azure’s AZ availability guidance.

Glasgow, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User4577 on: July 02, 2026
Question 12:

Answer: A (5)

Why: Each VM needs its own network interface. A single NIC can host both a private IP (in the subnet) and a public IP (via the NIC’s IP configuration), so you don’t need two NICs per VM. With five VMs, you’d use five NICs in total. The requirement for identical inbound/outbound rules can be satisfied by applying an NSG at the subnet or NIC level, but it doesn’t change the minimum NIC count.

Amsterdam, Netherlands

AI Explanation - verified by juris.siksna on: June 27, 2026
Question 397:
Question 397 explanation:

Correct answer: A: Review the risk management plan to identify the response strategy.

Why: When a deadline is at risk due to resource delays, the proper first step is to consult the project’s risk framework. The risk management plan defines how risks are identified, analyzed, and responded to, including escalation paths and predefined response strategies. This ensures you act consistently with the project’s approved approach.

Why not B: Escalation to the sponsor is appropriate only if the risk requires authority beyond the PM or if the plan calls for escalation; it’s not the immediate, defined next step by itself.

Why not C: Fast-tracking tasks from the milestone list is a tactical schedule adjustment, not the correct first action to address the underlying risk.

Why not D: A team meeting can help collaboration, but without applying the predefined risk response, it doesn’t address the formal process for handling the risk.

Next steps after A (brief): update the risk register as needed, apply the identified risk response per the plan, and escalate if the plan requires it.
Riga, Latvia

AI Explanation - verified by User7934 on: June 22, 2026
Question 6:
Explanation for Question 6

What’s happening: You have a P2S VPN to VNetA and then peered VNetA with VNetB. On-prem can reach VNetB, but the Windows 10 P2S client can’t reach VNetB yet. The issue is typically that the P2S client config still only knows about VNetA’s routes.

Why the fix works: Re-downloading and reinstalling the VPN client configuration package updates the client with the latest route information from the VNet gateway. After peering to VNetB, you need the P2S client to carry the route to VNetB’s address space through the VNetA gateway. The refreshed config includes those routes, allowing traffic destined for VNetB to travel via the VPN tunnel.

Key terms:

- P2S VPN: Point-to-Site VPN for individual client computers. - VPN gateway: The Azure appliance in a VNet that terminates VPN connections. - VNet peering: Connects VNets to enable private traffic between them. - Address space: The IP ranges defined for each VNet that need to be known by clients/gateways. - Client configuration package: The downloaded files that configure the VPN client with server and route info.

Practical takeaway: After adding a peering to a new VNet, regenerate and reinstall the P2S client config so it includes the new VNet’s routes.

Amsterdam, Netherlands

AI Explanation - verified by odili.tina on: June 27, 2026
Question 47:

Answer: The items you can endorse are Lakehouse1, Model1, and Report1 only (Dashboard1 cannot be endorsed).

Why: Endorsement is a Fabric and Power BI feature used to mark high-quality content. The rule is that any Fabric or Power BI item except Power BI dashboards can be promoted or certified. Since Dashboard1 is a Power BI dashboard, it isn’t eligible for endorsement, per the note and explanation.

Quick takeaway:

- Eligible: Lakehouse1, Model1, Report1 - Not eligible: Dashboard1
Lagos, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by raman.thulasi71 on: June 25, 2026
Question 299:
The correct answer is C) Agility.
Explanation:

Agility refers to the ability to rapidly provision and deploy cloud resources (compute, storage, database) to support new projects or changes, often in minutes.

Elasticity is about automatically scaling resources to match demand, not just quick deployment.

Cost savings relate to reducing expenses, not deployment speed.

Reliability covers uptime and fault tolerance, not how fast you can deploy resources.

Hyderabad, India

AI Explanation - verified by vansh.shah on: June 30, 2026
Question 30:
EOD Update — 30/06/2026 (Tuesday)

Name: Vansh Shah

Reporting Manager: Nitish Patel

Completed Today:

- Task 223996: Practice Concepts Related to DP 900 Certifications

Plan for Monday:

- Task 223997: Practice Concepts Related to DP 900 Certifications (T1)

Blockers: None

Notes (optional): I can add time spent, outcomes, or any blockers if needed.
Ahmedabad, India

AI Explanation - verified by User5425 on: June 30, 2026
Question 67:
Question 67 asks which existing roles you can clone to create two new custom roles: Role3 (Azure subscription scope) and Role4 (Microsoft Entra/Entra ID scope).
Correct selections:

Box 1 (Role3 – Azure subscription role): Role1 and built-in Azure subscription roles only.

Box 2 (Role4 – Microsoft Entra role): Built-in Microsoft Entra roles only.

Why:

Cloning creates a custom role by copying an existing one and editing permissions. This is generally allowed from built-in roles that live at the same scope. For an Azure subscription role (Role3), you can clone from Role1 (a built-in role) or other built-in subscription roles.

For a Microsoft Entra (directory) role (Role4), you can clone only from built-in Microsoft Entra roles. Cloning from an Azure subscription role to create an Entra role (or vice versa) isn’t supported.

Implementation (high-level):

For Role3: open the subscription scope in the portal, go to IAM > Roles, select a built-in subscription role (or Role1), choose Clone, modify, and save as Role3.

For Role4: open the Entra/Directory scope, go to Roles, select a built-in Entra role, choose Clone, modify, and save as Role4.

Gravesend, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User9999 on: July 04, 2026
Question 24:
Question 24 asks: A LTM device needs to load balance active and passive FTP traffic while using only a single virtual server. Which virtual server type should be configured?

Correct answer (per the key): Forwarding (IP) [option E].

Why this works:

FTP uses dynamic data ports and has two modes:

- Active: server connects back to the client for the data channel. - Passive: client connects to the server for the data channel.

A non-terminating, IP-forwarding virtual server (Forwarding (IP)) simply passes traffic to the pool members without terminating the TCP session. This avoids the complexities of FTP port range translation and protocol handling inside the LTM, allowing both active and passive connections to be established through a single VIP.

In contrast, a Standard virtual server terminates the connection and would require FTP protocol handling (FTP profiles) and can complicate single-VIP support for both modes.

In short: Forwarding (IP) preserves end-to-end FTP behavior for both active and passive modes using one virtual server.
Thalwil, Switzerland

AI Explanation - verified by User4076 on: July 04, 2026
Question 26:
Here’s why Question 26’s four statements are true, and why the given answer (A,B) is incomplete.

A) Customers can change the size of the Warehouse after creation — True.

- You can resize a warehouse at any time with an ALTER WAREHOUSE command or in the UI.

B) A Warehouse can be resized while running — True.

- Snowflake supports changing the size of a warehouse while queries are executing. The resize takes effect as resources are allocated.

C) A Warehouse can be configured to suspend after a period of inactivity — True.

- This is the auto-suspend feature (AUTO_SUSPEND). You set a delay in seconds, after which the warehouse suspends when idle.

D) A Warehouse can be configured to auto-resume when new queries are submitted — True.

- This is the auto-resume feature (AUTO_RESUME). If a suspended warehouse receives a query, it automatically resumes.
Examples:

Change size: ALTER WAREHOUSE my_wh SET WAREHOUSE_SIZE = 'LARGE';

Enable auto-suspend: ALTER WAREHOUSE my_wh SET AUTO_SUSPEND = 300;

Enable auto-resume: ALTER WAREHOUSE my_wh SET AUTO_RESUME = TRUE;

Note: The provided answer key often contains errors. In this case, all four statements are true. If you want, I can walk through how to verify these settings in the UI or via SQL.
North Las Vegas, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User3355 on: June 22, 2026
Question 15:
Question 15 explanation:

Correct answer: C. You should restore the VM to a new Azure VM.

Why:

In a ransomware scenario, you want to recover from a known-good backup in a clean environment to avoid reinfection.

Azure Backup Instant Restore lets you mount the backup and bring it up as a new VM, isolating it from the infected VM.

Restoring to the infected VM (A), or to any existing VM (B), risks reinfecting or conflicts, and restoring to an on-premises device (D) is not supported by Azure Backup Instant Restore.

After validating the new VM is clean, you can securely recover data and redeploy as needed.

Sandton, South Africa

AI Explanation - verified by madhavi.chilla09 on: June 09, 2026
Question 64:
Question 64 tests how Row-Level Security (RLS) behaves when a user belongs to multiple roles.

Model: Tables Orders, Date, City with one-to-many relationships (Date ? Orders and City ? Orders).

Roles:

- Role1: City[State Province] = "Kentucky" - Role2: Date[Calendar Year] = 2020
Key concept: When a user is a member of more than one RLS role, the filters from those roles are applied together. In Power BI, RLS filters are effectively ANDed across roles for the same user, so the user must meet all role filters simultaneously.
Therefore, the user will see data where:

State Province is Kentucky AND

Calendar Year is 2020

Which corresponds to option D: “The user will only see data for which the State Province value is Kentucky and the Calendar Year is 2020.”
Note: The provided key showing A (Kentucky OR 2020) is incorrect for standard RLS behavior.
Hyderabad, India

AI Explanation - verified by User2971 on: June 27, 2026
Question 144:
Question 144 asks about the role of the Rendezvous Point (RP) in PIM Sparse Mode.

Correct answer: C — The RP is the multicast router that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree.

Explanation:

In PIM-SM, receivers initially join the shared tree by sending joins toward the RP. The RP acts as the root of this shared distribution tree (the RPT), so data from the source is forwarded along that shared path toward the receivers.

The RP is not merely a control-plane entity; it participates in multicast forwarding for the shared tree.

The other options are incorrect: the RP does not maintain default aging timeouts as its primary role; it is not only control-plane; and it does not “respond to joins with the source”—joins push toward the RP, and the path to the source may be established via the SPT if/when it’s desired.

Plano, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User7356 on: July 04, 2026
Question 20:
Question 20 asks about the Server certificate SNI check when the SNI hostname doesn’t match the certificate’s CN or SAN.

Answer: C. FortiGate will close the connection if the SNI does not match the CN or SAN fields.

Why:

SNI (Server Name Indication) tells the server which hostname the client wants. The server certificate should cover that hostname, either in the CN or in the SAN (Subject Alternative Name) field.

If the SNI does not appear in either CN or SAN, the certificate identity check fails. In strict/SNI-check mode, FortiGate will terminate the TLS handshake to prevent a potential man-in-the-middle.

Why not D: matching both CN and SAN is not usually required; if the SNI matches either CN or SAN, the check passes. “Does not match CN and SAN” would be overly strict.

Why not A or B: A suggests using CN for URL filtering when SNI doesn’t match, which isn’t standard behavior. B suggests a warning while accepting the connection, which is not the default strict behavior in this context.

Note: I can’t see the exhibit image, but the general rule is: if SNI isn’t found in CN or SAN, FortiGate blocks the connection (C). If you want, I can walk through the concept of SNI checks or compare how different SSL inspection profiles affect this behavior.
Parabiago, Italy

AI Explanation - verified by User9215 on: June 20, 2026
Question 2:
Question 2 asks which connector to use to build a Power BI report from a Power Apps project management app hosted in Teams.

Correct answer: Dataverse

Why: Power Apps in Teams typically stores its data in Dataverse (Dataverse for Teams). The Dataverse connector in Power BI lets you connect directly to that data source to pull in the app data for reporting, with options for live or scheduled refresh.

Quick contrast with other options:

- Microsoft Teams Personal Analytics: analyzes your own Teams usage, not the app’s data. - SQL Server database: only applicable if the app data lives in SQL Server. - Dataflows: used for ETL within Power BI; not the direct connector to the app’s data source.

How to use (brief): In Power BI Desktop, choose Get Data > Dataverse, select the environment and tables used by the app, then load and model for your report.

Lagos, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by czupakam on: June 19, 2026
Question 1:
Here’s why Question 1’s answer is B and E.

Goal: Connect Vnet2 and Vnet3 so their traffic routes through Vnet1 to the Boston datacenter over ExpressRoute, and traffic between Vnet2 and Vnet3 goes via Vnet1 (hub-and-spoke with transit).

Key concepts:

Use the remote gateway: On the peering between Vnet2–Vnet1 and Vnet3–Vnet1, set “Use the remote virtual network's gateway or Route Server”. This makes Vnet2/Vnet3 send their traffic to the gateway in the remote network (Vnet1) for routing to on-prem.

Allow forwarded traffic: On those same peerings, enable “Allow for Traffic forwarded from remote virtual network” so Vnet1 can forward traffic coming from Vnet2 or Vnet3 to the remote (on-prem over ExpressRoute).

Why the other options aren’t correct:

Enabling Gateway usage on the Vnet1 peering would have Vnet1 use Vnet2/Vnet3’s gateway, which is not what you want.

The required transit behavior is achieved by B (forwarding allowed) and E (use remote gateway) on the Vnet2/Vnet3 peerings, not by the Vnet1-side settings.

Vienna, Austria

AI Explanation - verified by User9637 on: June 05, 2026
Question 2:
Question 2 is about how coalesced (coalesce) fields work during a data import.
Key idea:

Coalesce fields are the set of fields used to identify an existing record to update instead of creating a duplicate.

Why the other options are incorrect:

If no match is found using the coalesce fields, a new record is created (not “no transform map”; the import will create a new row).

If a match is found, the record is updated, not created anew.

The statement about not creating a Transform Map when no match is found is incorrect; Transform Maps still apply during the import.

Correct concept:

A: If a match is found using the coalesce fields, the existing record is updated with the information being imported.

Example:

Importing users by email as coalesce fields. If a row’s email already exists, update that user; if not, create a new user.

Hyderabad, India

AI Explanation - verified by User7198 on: June 20, 2026
Question 139:
Question 139: Correct options are D and E.

A is incorrect: Functional analysis is not limited to existing products nor only minimizes costs of the originally defined functions. It’s a part of value analysis/VE used to examine what functions are required and how they contribute to value, for both new and existing products.

B is incorrect: Value engineering is not necessarily a “fundamental rethinking and radical redesign” of processes. It’s a structured approach to improve value by analyzing function and cost, not explicitly radical process redesign (that would be closer to business/process reengineering).

C is incorrect: Target costing is determined at the design stage based on expected selling price and required profit, not a continual target during production.

D is correct: Value analysis focuses on reducing costs while preserving the product’s purpose, reliability, and quality.

E is correct: Kaizen costing involves ongoing, small incremental cost reductions while the product is in production.

Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by User4554 on: June 19, 2026
Question 8:

Answer: B) Problem management

Why: Problem management handles the lifecycle of problems, including root-cause analysis and permanent fixes to prevent recurrence. If vulnerabilities are discovered after go-live, they’re problems that need investigation and remediation, not just a one-off change or a user service request.

How it differs from the others:

- Change control: manages approval and coordination of changes to implement fixes (but the core practice for handling the post-live vulnerability is problem management). - Service level management: focuses on ensuring services meet agreed performance and quality levels. - Service desk / Service request management: handles user requests and single incidents, not the root-cause analysis of underlying vulnerabilities.

In short, post-go-live vulnerabilities are addressed primarily by problem management, with fixes potentially moving into changes through the Change Control process.

Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia

AI Explanation - verified by User6205 on: June 17, 2026
which is the body responsible for technical matters relating to accounting standards
Answer: The IASB (International Accounting Standards Board).
Explanation: The IASB is the independent standard-setting body responsible for developing and issuing IFRS. The IFRS Foundation trustees oversee governance and funding, while the IFRS Interpretations Committee handles interpretations of IFRS, not the core technical standard setting.
Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by User7840 on: June 28, 2026
Question 148:
Question 148 asks which migration strategy is best to modernize and convert a monolithic application into microservices and move it to AWS.

Correct answer: Refactor (D)

Why: Refactoring involves re-architecting the application to decompose it into independent microservices. This aligns with the goal of moving from a monolith to microservices, enabling independent deployment, scaling, and maintenance.

Why others aren’t correct for this goal:

- Rehost (lift-and-shift): moves the app with minimal changes, preserving the monolithic architecture. - Replatform: makes some cloud optimizations but still keeps a monolith. - Repurchase: replaces the app with a different product (often SaaS), not microservices.
High-level AWS approach after refactoring (conceptual):

Decompose into services with clear boundaries.

Deploy per-service using containers or serverless (e.g., ECS/EKS/Fargate or Lambda).

Use API Gateway for service exposure and potentially a service mesh like App Mesh for communication.

Implement per-service data stores and resilient communication, with CI/CD pipelines (CodePipeline, CodeBuild).

If you want, I can walk through how to apply this with a sample monolith-to-microservices decomposition.
Dakar, Senegal

AI Explanation - verified by User8756 on: June 16, 2026
Question 32:
No. The solution does not meet the goal.
Why:

A local network gateway represents an on-premises VPN device for site-to-site or VNet-to-VNet connections. It’s used to connect Azure to external networks, not to control traffic inside Azure between resources.

To control connection types between web servers and database servers in Azure, you should use Network Security Groups (NSGs). Apply NSGs to the appropriate scope (subnets or NICs) and configure inbound/outbound rules to permit only the required traffic (e.g., allow SQL port from web subnet to the DB subnet, and deny everything else).

Helpful alternative concepts:

Use NSGs to implement port/protocol restrictions between the web and database tiers.

For more advanced filtering, consider Azure Firewall or private endpoints/service endpoints to further restrict access to databases.

Singapore, Singapore

AI Explanation - verified by User6170 on: June 15, 2026
walk through how this ties into the broader privacy program.
Here’s how Question 11’s focus on controlled access fits into a broader privacy program:

Governance and risk management

- Establish a physical security policy (including controlled access) as part of the data governance framework. - Do a data inventory to know where personal data exists on site (paper, disks, servers) and classify it.

Data lifecycle management (DLM)

- Physical access controls help protect data through its lifecycle (creation, storage, use, retention, disposal). - Align retention and destruction policies for both paper and electronic records.

Access control (both physical and logical)

- Physical: badge systems, visitor logs, locked rooms to enforce least-privilege access. - Logical: once data moves electronic, apply least-privilege access (RBAC) and separate duties.

Data protection and privacy by design

- Move toward electronic storage with strong encryption, access controls, and secure disposal of old paper records. - Use defense-in-depth: physical controls complemented by encryption and strong access management.

Compliance and incident response

- Document controls to support regulatory compliance and audit readiness. - Plan breach notification and incident response as part of the privacy program.

Training, monitoring, and third-party governance

- Educate staff on data handling and access policies. - Ensure subsidiaries follow consistent privacy controls and reporting.
In short, starting with strong physical access
Curitiba, Brazil

AI Explanation - verified by raushankumar6343 on: June 27, 2026
Question 10:
Question 10 asks how to enable active learning for a natural language model (LUIS).
Correct answer: C — Add log=true to the prediction endpoint query.
Why:

Active learning relies on collecting real user utterances to improve the model. The log parameter, when set to true, enables logging of user queries from the prediction endpoint so you can review and label them for retraining.

The other options don’t enable active learning:

- A) show-all-intents=true is about displaying intents in results, not collecting training data. - B) Speech priming is unrelated to active learning. - D) Sentiment analysis is a separate capability and not needed to enable active learning.
Practical note:

This is based on the guidance to “log user queries to enable active learning” in the LUIS docs. Ensure you have the proper permissions and review/logged utterances can be used to periodically retrain and improve accuracy.

Kolkata, India

AI Explanation - verified by User7378 on: June 10, 2026
Question 5:
Here’s how to approach Question 5.

Correct three options:

- Enable column profile - Show column profile in details pane - Enable details pane

Why these are correct:

- The min and max values are provided by the column profile. Enabling the column profile ensures statistical metadata is collected for each column. - To actually see those stats (including min/max) in the UI, you need the details pane to be visible and configured to show the profile data. - “Show column value distribution” and “Show column quality details” relate to other profiling metrics (distribution, quality) and aren’t needed to obtain min/max values.

What the other options do (not required for min/max):

- Show column value distribution: shows distribution details, not specifically the min/max. - Show column quality details: shows data quality metrics, not min/max.
In short, enable the column profile and ensure the profile is shown in the details pane, with the details pane itself enabled. This will display min and max values for each column.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User9647 on: June 30, 2026
Question 71:

Answer: D – AWS Enterprise Support

Why:

- Basic is free but offers only limited, mostly non-technical help (billing/account), with no proactive operational guidance. - Developer and Business plans add more support options, but proactive, event-specific guidance and a dedicated Technical Account Manager (TAM) are primarily part of Enterprise. - Enterprise Support includes proactive guidance, TAMs, and architectural/operational reviews, which aligns with readiness assessment and risk mitigation for a new product launch, and these benefits are included with the plan (no separate add-on fee).
If you want, I can compare the four plans in more detail or explain what a TAM does and how “proactive guidance” works.
Hyderabad, India

AI Explanation - verified by User3058 on: June 08, 2026
Question 43:
Correct answer: Enable fuzzy matching.
Reasoning:

The Contacts data is not sanitized, so customer names may have typos, extra spaces, or slight variations. Exact matches would miss many valid relationships.

Enabling fuzzy matching lets Power Query align near-matches based on similarity, making the merge more robust.

How to implement:

In Power Query Editor, use Merge Queries (Customer as the left table, Contacts as the right table).

Join on Customer_Name (Customer) and Customer Name (Contacts).

Enable Use fuzzy matching (and adjust the similarity threshold if needed).

(Optional) Choose Left Outer as the join kind to keep all Customer rows, expanding to include matching Contacts data as desired.

Tip: After merging, expand the related columns you need (e.g., Contact Name, Contact Email) to complete the merged dataset.
Hyderabad, India

AI Explanation - verified by User9527 on: June 04, 2026
Question 3:
Correct answer: A

Why A fits: A decision tree provides explicit, visual decision rules showing how each gene characteristic splits the data toward one of the 20 categories. You can trace paths from root to leaf to document exactly how outputs are determined.

Why the others are less suitable:

- Linear regression: Designed for continuous targets; not appropriate for multi-class classification and shows no clear, per-output decision path. - Logistic regression: Interpretable for multiclass, but explanations are per-class weights and can be harder to document as a single, intuitive mechanism for all 20 categories. - Neural networks: Generally a black box; hard to document the precise inner mechanics driving each prediction.

Caveat: A single decision tree can overfit and be unstable with small changes. For high-dimensional gene data, you might prefer tree-based ensembles (e.g., random forest, gradient boosting) with feature-importance explanations, while acknowledging that their inner decision paths are less transparent than a single tree.

Kolkata, India

AI Explanation - verified by User5160 on: June 09, 2026
what is NIDS and WAF

NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System)

- What it is: A security system that monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and known threats. - Where it sits: At or near the network perimeter or inside segments to observe traffic. - How it works: Uses signature-based or anomaly-based detection to generate alerts when it sees malicious patterns. - What it does: Detects threats and logs events; typically passive (does not block traffic unless paired with other controls like an IPS). - Notes: Won’t usually decrypt TLS traffic by itself; focuses on network-layer indicators.

WAF (Web Application Firewall)

- What it is: A security solution that filters and monitors HTTP/HTTPS traffic to and from web applications. - Where it sits: In front of the web app (often as a reverse proxy, inline appliance, or cloud service). - How it works: Applies rule sets and behavior-based checks to understand web app requests (URLs, headers, parameters, cookies) and blocks malicious payloads. - What it protects: Common web app attacks (SQL injection, XSS, CSRF, etc.) and can enforce application-specific policies. - Notes: Primarily protects web traffic; may offer bot protection and rate limiting.

How they relate: They complement each other—NIDS guards network traffic in general, while a WAF focuses on protecting web applications specifically.

Queens, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User4409 on: July 04, 2026
Question 13:
Question 13 asks how to import so only new records are added to a Data Extension.

Correct answers: B and D.

Why:

B (Ensure the data extension has a Primary Key): A primary key defines uniqueness. You need a key field to determine what’s “new” vs. “existing.”

D (Update type "Add Only"): This import mode inserts only records that don’t already exist in the DE. It avoids updating or overwriting current rows.

Why the others aren’t right:

A Overwrite would replace all existing data with the import, not what you want.

C Add and Update would insert new rows and also update existing ones, which contradicts “only new records.”

Implementation notes:

Ensure the target DE has a meaningful primary key (e.g., subscriber ID or email) and that the import file includes that key.

In the Import task, choose update type Add Only and map the key fields correctly.

If a record with the same key already exists, the Add Only import will skip or error for that row, depending on settings.

Important: the exam key here (B and C) is incorrect; based on Salesforce Marketing Cloud behavior, the correct pairing is B and D.
Pune, India

AI Explanation - verified by User6964 on: June 15, 2026
Question 115:
Answer: A — Determine what the problem is and develop an action plan.
Why this is correct:

When virtual team members frequently can’t join calls, the first step is to diagnose the root cause (e.g., bandwidth, hardware, ISP, VPN, or platform limits) and then create a plan to address it. This follows good problem-solving and risk/issue management in communications with distributed teams.

It’s proactive and comprehensive: identify the issue, assess impact, and outline concrete actions to fix or mitigate the problem.

Why the other options are weaker:

B (use chat tools as an alternative) while helpful, doesn’t solve underlying connectivity or reliability issues and may degrade meeting effectiveness for complex discussions.

C (procure lower-bandwidth tools) targets symptoms and may incur cost or integration hurdles without confirming necessity or feasibility.

D (record the meeting) helps later review but does not resolve live connectivity problems and excludes real-time participation.

Practical action steps after choosing A:

Collect data on when and where the issues occur, who is affected, and the severity.

Analyze root causes (network, hardware, platform, VPN, time of day).

Develop options (reduce video, switch platforms, schedule windows with better bandwidth, provide dial-in, or asynchronous updates) and pick a plan.

Implement and monitor effectiveness.

Riga, Latvia

AI Explanation - verified by beehibbler on: June 22, 2026
Question 400:
Question 400 correct answer: SLE

Why: Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) represents the monetary loss expected from a single cybersecurity incident. It answers “what is the impact of one incident?”

How it’s used: SLE = Asset Value × Exposure Factor (the portion of the asset that is actually lost).

Related concepts:

- ALE (Annualized Loss Expectancy) = SLE × ARO (frequency of incidents per year) — used for annual risk. - ARO is the rate of occurrence of incidents; not per-incident impact. - SLA is a service level agreement, not an impact metric.

Example: If asset value is $100,000 and exposure factor is 0.4, SLE = $40,000 per incident. If ARO is 3 per year, ALE = $120,000/year.

Jacksonville, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User8952 on: June 27, 2026
Question 21:
Correct answer: B
Explanation:

In Language Understanding (LUIS), you have an authoring resource (used to create and train intents/entities) and a separate prediction resource (used for runtime inference).

To add contributors, you grant them Azure RBAC access on the authoring resource via the Access control (IAM) page in the Azure portal. This controls who can edit and manage the authoring content.

A Conditional Access policy governs sign-in requirements and access at the directory level, not per-resource collaboration.

The prediction resource is for serving queries and its access is managed separately; you don’t add collaborators there for authoring work.

Kolkata, India

AI Explanation - verified by sshuang68 on: June 28, 2026
Question 286:
Question 286 recap:

Client: 209.165.201.25

Server: 209.165.200.225

Service: TCP port 80

ACL direction: inbound on the interface toward the web server (i.e., traffic entering the server)

Correct reasoning:

For inbound traffic toward the server, the ACL must permit traffic with the client as the source and the server as the destination, using TCP and destination port 80.

The proper entry is:

permit tcp host 209.165.201.25 host 209.165.200.225 eq 80
Why the other options are incorrect:

B is the correct choice (source 209.165.201.25, destination 209.165.200.225, dest port 80).

D would specify the reverse direction (server to client) or misapply the port, which is not what we want for inbound traffic to the server.

A uses lt 80 (destination port < 80) which is not appropriate for HTTP.

C also uses the reverse source/destination and would not allow client-to-server traffic.

Key takeaway: inbound ACL on the server-facing interface should permit tcp host 209.165.201.25 host 209.165.200.225 eq 80.
Plano, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User2759 on: July 04, 2026
Question 40:

Correct answer: C — The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.

Why:

The switch learns each device’s MAC address in its CAM (MAC address) table when frames arrive.

After initial communication, the switch knows PC_A’s MAC and PC_B’s MAC and the ports they’re on.

When PC_A sends to PC_B again, the switch forwards the frame based on PC_B’s MAC and the port where PC_B is attached; it does not rewrite the frame’s MAC header.

So the frame header stays: source = PC_A’s MAC, destination = PC_B’s MAC.

Why the other options are incorrect:

Source MAC is changed: not done by a switch on a normal unicast frame.

Destination MAC replaced with ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff: only happens for broadcasts, not a regular unicast to PC_B.

Switch rewrites both MACs with its own: not how standard switching operates.

Chennai, India

AI Explanation - verified by User8952 on: June 27, 2026
Question 47:
Question 47 explanation:

Correct sequence: Change the domain to General (compact) ? Retrain ? Export.

Why:

- The compact domain is the one that supports exporting so you can run the model offline (edge deployment). Non-compact/general domains don’t export to local devices. - Changing the domain changes the model architecture, so you must retrain after the domain switch to generate a valid exported model.

Steps you would perform:

- In the Custom Vision portal, go to project settings and change the Domain to General (compact), then save. - Click Train to retrain the model with the new domain. - Once training finishes, choose Export and select the desired format (e.g., TensorFlow/ONNX) for offline use, then download.

Key takeaway: To export for an offline network, you must switch to a compact domain, retrain, and then export.

Kolkata, India

AI Explanation - verified by User6170 on: June 15, 2026
Question 16:
A opção correta é C: "Proteger as liberdades civis e aumentar a conscientização do consumidor."
Por quê:

EFF e EPIC são organizações não governamentais criadas para defender liberdades civis na esfera digital e ampliar a consciência sobre privacidade e direitos dos consumidores.

Não foram criadas para estabelecer padrões de transações online (isso costuma envolver órgãos regulatórios ou padrões técnicos).

Embora apoiem criptografia, o objetivo principal delas não é promover a segurança via criptografia como único caminho.

Não se concentram apenas em aumentar a confiança do consumidor na indústria nem em “promover segurança na Internet através de criptografia forte” como missão central.

Resumo: defender liberdades civis digitais e educar/alertar o público sobre privacidade são seus compromissos centrais.
Curitiba, Brazil

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Cisco 350-901 Exam Actual Questions Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR) (Page 10 )

QUESTION: 40

QUESTION: 41

QUESTION: 42

Explanation:

QUESTION: 43

QUESTION: 44

Cisco 350-901 Exam Actual Questions
Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR) (Page 10 )