CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Questions
CompTIA Security+ (Page 10 )

Updated On: 31-Mar-2026

A security administrator is working to find a cost-effective solution to implement certificates for a large number of domains and subdomains owned by the company.
Which of the following types of certificates should the administrator implement?

  1. Wildcard
  2. Client certificate
  3. Self-signed
  4. Code signing

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A) A wildcard certificate is cost-effective for many domains and subdomains because it covers all current and future subdomains under a single base domain, reducing management and renewal workload.
B) Client certificates authenticate end-users or devices, not domains, and are not intended to cover multiple subdomains.
C) Self-signed certificates are not trusted by clients by default and do not scale well for a large number of domains, increasing trust and management issues.
D) Code signing certs validate software publishers, not web domains or subdomains, and do not secure TLS for multiple domains.



An auditor discovered multiple insecure ports on some servers. Other servers were found to have legacy protocols enabled.
Which of the following tools did the auditor use to discover these issues?

  1. Nessus
  2. curl
  3. Wireshark
  4. netcat

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The auditor used a vulnerability scanner to identify insecure ports and legacy protocols, which aligns with Nessus’s capability to perform port and protocol discovery and vulnerability assessment.
A) Nessus - Correct: Vulnerability scanner that detects open ports, misconfigurations, and legacy service findings across hosts.
B) curl - Incorrect: Client-side tool for transferring data; does not enumerate ports or detect vulnerabilities.
C) Wireshark - Incorrect: Network analyzer that captures traffic; it can reveal protocols in use but not efficiently identify insecure ports or legacy services across many servers.
D) netcat - Incorrect: Utility for reading/writing data across network connections; can probe ports but not a comprehensive vulnerability assessment.


Reference:



A security analyst received a tip that sensitive proprietary information was leaked to the public. The analyst is reviewing the PCAP and notices traffic between an internal server and an external host that includes the following:

...
12:47:22.327233 PPPoE [ses 0x8122] IP (tos 0x0, ttl 64, id 0, offset 0, flags [DF], proto IPv6 (41), length 331) 10.5.1.1 > 52.165.16.154: IP6 (hlim E3, next- header TCP (6) paylcad length: 271) 2001:67c:2158:a019::ace.53104 > 2001:0:5ef5:79fd:380c:dddd:a601:24fa.13788: Flags [P.], cksum 0xd7ee (correct), seq 97:348, ack 102, win 16444, length 251
...

Which of the following was most likely used to exfiltrate the data?

  1. Encapsulation
  2. MAC address spoofing
  3. Steganography
  4. Broken encryption
  5. Sniffing via on-path position

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The data exfiltration used encapsulation, as indicated by the PPPoE tunnel carrying IPv6 payloads between internal and external hosts, which is a classic encapsulation method to hide traffic inside another protocol and reach a remote destination.
A) Encapsulation
B) MAC address spoofing
C) Steganography
D) Broken encryption
E) Sniffing via on-path position
Note: MAC spoofing is unrelated to tunneling; steganography hides data inside other files, not network headers. Broken encryption implies plaintext exposure, not observed. Sniffing on-path would require the attacker to passively capture traffic, not conceal it via a tunnel. The PPPoE/IP6 encapsulated session suggests exfiltration through an encapsulated tunnel.



A company wants to reduce the time and expense associated with code deployment.
Which of the following technologies should the company utilize?

  1. Serverless architecture
  2. Thin clients
  3. Private cloud
  4. Virtual machines

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A) Serverless architecture reduces deployment time and administrative overhead by abstracting server management and scaling automatically, leading to faster code delivery and lower operational costs.
B) Thin clients minimize endpoint hardware but do not directly impact deployment speed or code delivery processes.
C) Private cloud focuses on resource pooling and security within an organization, not specifically on deployment speed or expense reduction for code updates.
D) Virtual machines introduce OS provisioning and heavier maintenance, increasing deployment time and costs compared to serverless options.



A security administrator is performing an audit on a stand-alone UNIX server, and the following message is immediately displayed:

(Error 13): /etc/shadow: Permission denied.

Which of the following best describes the type of tool that is being used?

  1. Pass-the-hash monitor
  2. File integrity monitor
  3. Forensic analysis
  4. Password cracker

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

A) A password cracker is used to attempt to recover or crack password hashes, and a “Permission denied” reading of /etc/shadow during an audit indicates an attempt to access password data, which aligns with password-cracking activity on a UNIX system.
B) File integrity monitor verifies unchanged files or detects tampering; it would not issue a direct password-hash access error in this context.
C) Forensic analysis is broader evidence gathering; the specific error points to an active credential-targeted attempt, not general data collection.
D) Pass-the-hash monitor detects credential abuse at login; not typically shown by a direct /etc/shadow access denial during an audit.



A security administrator needs to create firewall rules for the following protocols: RTP, SIP, H.323. and SRTP.
Which of the following does this rule set support?

  1. RTOS
  2. VoIP
  3. SoC
  4. HVAC

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

A VoIP rule set supports firewall controls for RTP, SIP, H.323, and SRTP, which are signaling and media protocols used in Voice over IP communications.
A) RTOS — Not related to VoIP traffic; RTOS refers to real-time operating systems, not network protocols.
B) VoIP — Correct; encompasses SIP, RTP, H.323, and SRTP traffic used for voice communication over IP.
C) SoC — System on a Chip; hardware architecture, not a protocol or traffic type.
D) HVAC — Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning; unrelated to network firewall rules or VoIP traffic.



Which of the following best describes a social engineering attack that uses a targeted electronic messaging campaign aimed at a Chief Executive Officer?

  1. Whaling
  2. Spear phishing
  3. Impersonation
  4. Identity fraud

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A) Whaling is a targeted form of phishing aimed at high-profile individuals such as a CEO, utilizing electronic messaging to exploit trust and access. B) Spear phishing targets specific individuals but not necessarily high-profile executives; whaling is a subset focused on executives. C) Impersonation refers to posing as someone else, but the term is broader and not specifically the executive-targeted messaging campaign. D) Identity fraud involves stealing someone’s identity, not specifically corporate executive-focused phishing.



During a penetration test, a flaw in the internal PKI was exploited to gain domain administrator rights using specially crafted certificates.
Which of the following remediation tasks should be completed as part of the cleanup phase?

  1. Updating the CRL
  2. Patching the CA
  3. Changing passwords
  4. Implementing SOAR

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The correct remediation is to patch the CA to fix the flaw exploited via certificates and prevent further domain admin compromises.
A) Updating the CRL is insufficient because revocation lists do not fix the root CA vulnerability or certificate issuance flaws; they only indicate certs are no longer trusted.
B) Patching the CA addresses the underlying vulnerability in the PKI infrastructure, preventing similar certificate abuse.
C) Changing passwords protects accounts but does not remediate PKI weaknesses or compromised CA functionality.
D) Implementing SOAR relates to security orchestration and response automation, not directly to remediating CA PKI flaws.



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