CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Questions
CompTIA Security+ (Page 15 )

Updated On: 27-Apr-2026

Which of the following topics would most likely be included within an organization's SDLC?

  1. Service-level agreements
  2. Information security policy
  3. Penetration testing methodology
  4. Branch protection requirements

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Option D is correct because SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle) includes requirements and controls for software safety and reliability, such as branch protection to enforce protected code branches in version control, aligning with secure development practices. A) Service-level agreements pertain to operational performance expectations, not SDLC development controls. B) Information security policy is overarching governance, not a specific SDLC topic. C) Penetration testing methodology is part of security testing phases, but not a fundamental SDLC control like branch protection. Therefore D is the best fit; others are peripheral to typical SDLC content.



Which of the following control types is AUP an example of?

  1. Physical
  2. Managerial
  3. Technical
  4. Operational

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Option D is correct because an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) governs user behavior and operational procedures, which are classified as operational controls that implement day-to-day security practices. A) Incorrect — Physical controls manage tangible assets (fences, locks) not user conduct. B) Incorrect — Managerial controls relate to governance, risk management, and policies at an organizational level, but AUPs are executed in daily operations. C) Incorrect — Technical controls deploys technology (firewalls, IDS); AUPs do not rely on technical enforcement.



An organization is adopting cloud services at a rapid pace and now has multiple SaaS applications in use. Each application has a separate log-in, so the security team wants to reduce the number of credentials each employee must maintain. Which of the following is the first step the security team should take?

  1. Enable SAML.
  2. Create OAuth tokens.
  3. Use password vaulting.
  4. Select an IdP.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Option D is correct because selecting an Identity Provider (IdP) enables centralized authentication and supports single sign-on across multiple SaaS applications, reducing credential management for users. A) Enable SAML: SAML is a protocol used by an IdP; enabling it is part of using an IdP but not the initial step itself. B) Create OAuth tokens: OAuth tokens are for delegated access, not the foundational step to unify logins. C) Use password vaulting: Password vaulting helps store credentials but does not provide SSO or centralized authentication across SaaS apps. INSUFFICIENT_KNOWLEDGE



A company's online shopping website became unusable shortly after midnight on January 30, 2023. When a security analyst reviewed the database server, the analyst noticed the following code used for backing up data:




Which of the following should the analyst do next?

  1. Check for recently terminated DBAs.
  2. Review WAF logs for evidence of command injection.
  3. Scan the database server for malware.
  4. Search the web server for ransomware notes.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Option B is correct because reviewing WAF logs for evidence of command injection helps identify a web app attack that could compromise server databases and disrupt service.
A) Incorrect — Terminated DBAs would be unlikely to directly cause an immediate outage; the scenario focuses on attacker techniques, not personnel.
C) Incorrect — Malware scan may be useful, but the specific clue points to input-based exploitation visible in WAF logs rather than generic malware presence.
D) Incorrect — Ransomware notes would indicate extortion but are not the primary indicator of a live command-injection attack affecting backups and uptime.



Which of the following would be the best way to test resiliency in the event of a primary power failure?

  1. Parallel processing
  2. Tabletop exercise
  3. Simulation testing
  4. Production failover

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Option D is correct because production failover directly tests operational continuity by switching to an alternate power or site, validating real-world recovery and SLA compliance. A) Parallel processing tests throughput, not resiliency to power loss. B) Tabletop exercise is discussion-based and lacks real system failover validation. C) Simulation testing models scenarios but may not involve actual failover of systems and power sources. D) Production failover is the only approach that proves systems remain available during a primary power loss.



Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to protect data in transit?

  1. SHA-256
  2. SSL3.0
  3. TLS 1.3
  4. AES-256

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Option C is correct because TLS 1.3 provides strong encryption and integrity protections for data in transit with modern cryptographic suites and reduced attack surface.
A) Incorrect — SHA-256 is a hashing algorithm, not used for protecting data in transit.
B) Incorrect — SSL 3.0 is deprecated and vulnerable; not suitable for protecting data in transit.
D) Incorrect — AES-256 is a symmetric encryption algorithm, but alone it does not specify protection for data in transit or provide the complete TLS protocol protections.



Which of the following is a common, passive reconnaissance technique employed by penetration testers in the early phases of an engagement?

  1. Open-source intelligence
  2. Port scanning
  3. Pivoting
  4. Exploit validation

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Option A is correct because open-source intelligence (OSINT) is a passive reconnaissance method used in early engagement to gather information from publicly available sources without directly interacting with the target’s systems. Incorrect — B: Port scanning is an active discovery technique that probes a target’s ports and services. Incorrect — C: Pivoting is an exploitation activity after initial access to move laterally. Incorrect — D: Exploit validation involves testing specific vulnerabilities to confirm they can be exploited, typically during later stages.



Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to seek financial gain through the use of ransomware attacks?

  1. Organized crime
  2. Insider threat
  3. Nation-state
  4. Hacktivists

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Organized crime groups are primarily motivated by financial gain. Ransomware attacks are a popular tool for these groups because they can encrypt a victim's data and demand a ransom payment (often in cryptocurrency) to restore access. This form of attack can yield a high financial return if victims choose to pay.



Viewing page 15 of 102
Viewing questions 113 - 120 out of 804 questions


SY0-701 Exam Discussions & Posts

AI Tutor AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!