E20-368 Exam Discussions & Posts
AI Explanation - verified by User3620
on: June 22, 2026
Question 463:
Q463 asks which IP address is correct to configure on the G0/0/0 interface. The correct choice is B: 145.4.2.55/26.
Why the others are invalid:
- A) 237.6.1.2/24 — 237.x.x.x is multicast, not assignable to a router interface.
- C) 127.3.1.4/28 — 127.0.0.0/8 is reserved for loopback; not for a physical interface.
- D) 192.168.10.112/30 — with /30, 192.168.10.112 is the network address (usable hosts are 113 and 114; 115 is broadcast), so it cannot be assigned to an interface.
São Paulo, Brazil
AI Explanation - verified by User7934
on: June 22, 2026
Question 6:
Explanation for Question 6
- What’s happening: You have a P2S VPN to VNetA and then peered VNetA with VNetB. On-prem can reach VNetB, but the Windows 10 P2S client can’t reach VNetB yet. The issue is typically that the P2S client config still only knows about VNetA’s routes.
- Why the fix works: Re-downloading and reinstalling the VPN client configuration package updates the client with the latest route information from the VNet gateway. After peering to VNetB, you need the P2S client to carry the route to VNetB’s address space through the VNetA gateway. The refreshed config includes those routes, allowing traffic destined for VNetB to travel via the VPN tunnel.
- P2S VPN: Point-to-Site VPN for individual client computers.
- VPN gateway: The Azure appliance in a VNet that terminates VPN connections.
- VNet peering: Connects VNets to enable private traffic between them.
- Address space: The IP ranges defined for each VNet that need to be known by clients/gateways.
- Client configuration package: The downloaded files that configure the VPN client with server and route info.
- Practical takeaway: After adding a peering to a new VNet, regenerate and reinstall the P2S client config so it includes the new VNet’s routes.
Amsterdam, Netherlands
AI Explanation - verified by somtoobi
on: June 22, 2026
Question 246:
The correct answer is D: Recovery Time Objective (RTO).
- Why: RTO is the maximum acceptable downtime after an incident. It defines how quickly systems must be restored to avoid significant business disruption, which matches the scenario described.
- What the other options mean:
- RPO (Recovery Point Objective): maximum tolerable amount of data loss (how recent the data must be when restored).
- Risk appetite: overall level of risk the organization is willing to accept.
- Risk tolerance: acceptable variation in outcomes at a business level, not a specific downtime metric.
- MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures): reliability metric for how long a system runs between failures.
- Quick example: If the RTO is 2 hours, the DR plan must ensure all critical systems are back online within 2 hours of outage.
How to apply in practice:
- Conduct a Business Impact Analysis to determine RTOs for critical systems.
- Design DR strategies to meet those RTOs (e.g., failover to a hot/warm site, automated recovery).
- Regularly test and update the plan to ensure you can meet the RTO.
Lagos, Nigeria
AI Explanation - verified by User8086
on: June 22, 2026
Question 27:
Reasoning for Question 27:
- Goal: analyze complaints by the date and use a built-in date hierarchy. Power BI needs a real date type column (not text) to expose Year/Quarter/Month/Day.
- The Logged values are text like “2018-12-31 at 08:59,” so you must isolate the date portion first.
Why option C is correct:
- Split the Logged column by the delimiter " at ". This yields a new column with just the date string, e.g., "2018-12-31".
- Convert that date string column to the proper
Date type. Once it’s a Date, Power BI automatically provides the built-in date hierarchy.
What you would do in Power Query Editor (brief steps):
- In Power Query Editor, select the
Logged column.
- Use
Split Column by Delimiter (delimiter: at ) to create a column containing 2018-12-31.
- Change the type of that new column to
Date (or DateTime if you prefer time granularity).
- Optional: remove the original
Logged column or the extra time column.
Other options are less effective because:
- A: “Parse” isn’t a standard one-step fix for creating a date type here.
- B: Directly changing to
Date fails due to the extra text and time.
- D: A static example won’t produce a usable date column for analysis.
Basildon, United Kingdom
AI Explanation - verified by User3355
on: June 22, 2026
Question 21:
Question 21 asks what role to grant Admin1 so they can manage both an internal load balancer (LB1) and a public load balancer (LB2) in RG1, using the principle of least privilege.
Key point:
- The appropriate built-in role is Network Contributor. This role lets you manage networking resources (like load balancers) without granting broader access to the resources.
Why this fits:
- Admin1 needs to configure or manage both LB1 and LB2, which are networking resources. Network Contributor provides the necessary permissions to work with networking components while avoiding full access rights that come with roles like Contributor or Owner.
Recommended assignment:
- Scope: assign the Network Contributor role to Admin1 at the resource group level for RG1 (so it covers both LB1 and LB2). Alternatively, you could assign the role directly on each load balancer, but RG1 is simpler and aligns with least privilege.
Example (Azure Portal):
- IAM > Add role assignment > Role: Network Contributor > Scope: RG1 > Member: Admin1
In short: grant Admin1 the Network Contributor role at RG1 to enable management of both LB1 and LB2 with the least privilege.
Sandton, South Africa
AI Explanation - verified by User3355
on: June 22, 2026
Question 15:
Question 15 explanation:
- Correct answer: C. You should restore the VM to a new Azure VM.
Why:
- In a ransomware scenario, you want to recover from a known-good backup in a clean environment to avoid reinfection.
- Azure Backup Instant Restore lets you mount the backup and bring it up as a new VM, isolating it from the infected VM.
- Restoring to the infected VM (A), or to any existing VM (B), risks reinfecting or conflicts, and restoring to an on-premises device (D) is not supported by Azure Backup Instant Restore.
- After validating the new VM is clean, you can securely recover data and redeploy as needed.
Sandton, South Africa
AI Explanation - verified by mf2708
on: June 22, 2026
Question 5:
Here’s the core idea behind Question 5:
- Problem focus: Who can enroll a new Autopilot device (Device6) in Intune?
- Key concept: MDM enrollment is controlled by the Entra/Intune enrollment scope. In this scenario, Automatic Enrollment is configured with:
- MDM user scope: GroupA
- MAM user scope: GroupB
- What that means: Only users who are members of GroupA can enroll devices into Intune (i.e., perform MDM enrollment for new devices).
- Why User1 and User4, not User2: User1 and User4 are members of GroupA (enabled for MDM enrollment). User2 is a Device Enrollment Manager (DEM), which governs enrollment behavior but does not grant MDM enrollment rights via GroupA’s scope. Therefore, User1 and User4 can enroll Device6, while User2 cannot.
Answer: A — User4 and User1 only
Notes:
- The Intune Connector for Active Directory on Server1 will create the on-prem computer object during Autopilot enrollment, but enrollment authorization is determined by MDM user scope (GroupA), not by the DEM role.
Gurugram, India
AI Explanation - verified by muhammadfarooqafzal9
on: June 22, 2026
Question 47:
Question 47 asks how to automate a weekly count of open cases related to each account.
- The exam key says A, but that’s not the best approach. A workflow rule with an outbound message can react to a single record, but it doesn’t perform batch cross-record counting on a schedule.
- B (scheduled process in Process Builder) isn’t ideal for cross-record aggregation across all accounts on a weekly basis; Process Builder isn’t designed for batch counting across related records in one run.
- C (Configure a scheduled flow in Flow Builder) is the correct option. A Scheduled Flow can run weekly, do a Get Records for open cases, count by AccountId (using a loop or a count variable), and then Update the related Account field with the count.
Answer: C) Configure a scheduled flow in Flow Builder.
Islamabad, Pakistan
AI Explanation - verified by User3355
on: June 22, 2026
Question 1:
You're right — the correct answer is D (1).
Explanation:
- Network Security Groups (NSGs) contain the inbound/outbound rules.
- If all five VMs are in the same subnet, you can attach a single NSG to that subnet.
- That one NSG will apply to all NICs in the subnet, giving identical rules to all VMs.
- Attaching NSGs to NICs individually would require up to five NSGs, which is not minimal.
Sandton, South Africa
AI Explanation - verified by User2335
on: June 22, 2026
Question 3:
Explication de la Question 3:
- Objectif: aider une équipe avec de gros besoins de stockage de fichiers centralisés, en conservant des performances de partage locales, de manière opérationnellement efficace.
- Option 1: Déployer un Storage Gateway avec un file gateway et connecter les postes clients. Le gateway expose des partages de fichiers SMB/NFS locaux et stocke les données de manière durable dans S3. C’est une solution éprouvée pour le partage de fichiers centralisé avec cache local et scalabilité.
- Option 2: Migrer les environnements vers Amazon WorkSpaces. Côté stockage, ce n’est pas l’objectif principal et cela n’offre pas un partage de fichiers centralisé performant.
- Option 3: WorkDocs par utilisateur. Plus adapté à la collaboration et au stockage cloud, pas nécessairement optimal pour un partage de fichiers local à grande échelle.
- Option 4: Déployer une instance EC2 avec EBS et partager le volume. EBS n’est pas conçu pour un partage efficace et direct entre de nombreux utilisateurs.
- Conclusion: la solution la plus opérationnellement efficace est le déploiement d’un Storage Gateway avec un file gateway (l’option qui décrit l’usage du gateway pour des partages locaux tout en stockant dans S3).
Note: la banque de questions indique « B », mais la meilleure approche AWS est le Storage Gateway file gateway.
Dakar, Senegal
AI Explanation - verified by User4625
on: June 22, 2026
Question 1:
For Question 1, the provided answer is A: Use of the Snowball Edge appliance for a 10-day period.
Why A is correct (explanation):
- In the Snowball/Edge pricing model, the device rental duration (the period you have the appliance) is covered as part of the service during the initial loan; the 10-day window is the period you can use the device without additional device-use charges.
- After that window, there are ongoing charges for daily device usage.
Why the other options are not free:
- B: The transfer of data out of S3 to the Snowball Edge incurs data-transfer costs; it’s not considered a free activity.
- C: The transfer of data from the Snowball Edge into S3 involves data transfer/storage costs.
- D: Daily use of the Snowball Edge after 10 days would incur ongoing device usage charges.
Key concept:
- Snowball Edge pricing typically includes the device rental period as part of the initial service, but data transfer and continued usage after the rental window are charged separately.
Dakar, Senegal
AI Explanation - verified by User9933
on: June 22, 2026
Question 1:
Here’s the explanation for Question 1.
Why:
- The Snowball Edge appliance is provided for a defined rental window, and the use of the device for the initial period (commonly up to 10 days) is included at no additional cost as part of the job.
- The other options involve data transfers or extended usage, which are charged separately under Snowball pricing. Specifically:
- Transferring data to the device (data movement into the Snowball) and transferring data from the device to Amazon S3 are billed according to Snowball data transfer pricing.
- Daily use of the appliance after the initial period (beyond 10 days) incurs ongoing charges.
In short, the only no-cost activity among the choices is the 10-day appliance usage. If you want, I can elaborate on the pricing details for the other data-transfer scenarios.
Dakar, Senegal
AI Explanation - verified by Hitmanhm
on: June 22, 2026
Question 61:
Kurz gesagt: Die richtige Antwort ist B.
Warum B sinnvoll ist:
- Ziel ist es, die SQS-Backlog pro Instanz zu reduzieren, nicht nur Gesamtauslastung wie Netzwerkin oder CPU zu betrachten.
- Wenn das backlog pro Instance hoch ist, sollten mehr Instanzen bereitgestellt werden, damit die Messages schneller abgearbeitet werden.
Wie man es umsetzt (Kernpunkte):
- Verwende CloudWatch-Metrik-Mathematik, um den backlog pro Instanz zu berechnen.
- Metriken:
- ApproximateNumberOfMessagesVisible aus der SQS-Warteschlange (sichtbare Nachrichten).
- Anzahl aktiver EC2-Instanzen in der ASG (z. B. GroupInService oder GroupTotalInstances aus AWS/AutoScaling).
- Ausdruck (Beispiel): backlog_per_instance = ApproximateNumberOfMessagesVisible / GroupInService.
- Richte eine Target-Tracking-Policy mit dieser benutzerdefinierten Metrik als Zielwert ein (z. B. gewünschter backlog pro Instanz). So reagiert Auto Scaling dynamisch in Echtzeit.
Warum nicht A, C oder D:
- A nutzt
ApproximateNumberOfMessagesDelayed, das spiegelt verzögerte Nachrichten wider, nicht den aktuellen Backlog pro Instanz.
- C und D (Step/Simple Scaling) verwenden feste Schwellenwerte und balancieren den Load pro Instanz nicht automatisch aus.
Prüm, Germany
AI Explanation - verified by User5486
on: June 22, 2026
Question 1:
- Correct options: C and D — Support Group and Owned by Group.
- Why: When a Technology Management Service Offering is related to a Dynamic CI Group, the offering’s Support Group and Owned by Group are synchronized to the member CIs. This maintains consistent operational ownership and support alignment across the CIs in the group.
- Why not A or B: Approval Group and Managed by Group are not synchronized in this scenario, so they aren’t automatically pushed to the member CIs.
Pune, India
AI Explanation - verified by User3099
on: June 22, 2026
Question 1:
Question 1 asks which tools let you view the administrative actions of a service administrator.
- Box 1: Not correct. Search & Intelligence in the admin center is for managing search experiences, usage analytics, bookmarks, acronyms, and Q&As—not for auditing admin actions.
- Box 2: Correct. The Audit feature in the Microsoft Defender portal (security.microsoft.com) can track and investigate user and administrator activities across Microsoft 365, including actions like role changes and device states.
- Box 3: Correct. Microsoft Purview Audit logs track user and administrator actions across Microsoft 365 services for forensic/compliance purposes (standard retention ~180 days; Premium longer).
So the true statements are Box 2 and Box 3 (Box 1 is No). The key you were given showing all Yes appears to be incorrect for Box 1. If you want, I can walk through where to find these logs in each portal.
Stockholm, Sweden
AI Explanation - verified by Thandimhlanga173
on: June 21, 2026
Question 9:
The intended answer is A (Standard).
Here's why in brief:
- Two instances: Free/Shared typically don’t support reliable scaling to multiple instances for production-grade apps; you need a tier that supports multi-instance hosting, which is Standard or higher.
- SSL support: Custom SSL for a domain like miami.weyland.com requires a paid App Service plan. Free/Shared don’t provide proper SSL options for a custom domain.
- Storage: You need about 12 GB. Free/Shared plans have very limited storage, and Basic may fall short on storage capacity depending on the region; Standard provides enough storage to meet/exceed 12 GB.
- Cost minimization: Among tiers that satisfy all three constraints (2 instances, SSL, sufficient storage), Standard is the lowest-cost viable option.
So, Standard is the minimum tier that meets all requirements while keeping costs down. If you’d like, I can compare the exact storage quotas and instance limits from the latest Azure docs to confirm.
Johannesburg, South Africa
AI Explanation - verified by User4939
on: June 21, 2026
Question 24:
Question 24 explanation
- Command:
sourcetype=access_combined | transaction JSESSIONID
- What it does: It groups events by the value of JSESSIONID so events with the same JSESSIONID are combined into a single transaction (one output event per JSESSIONID).
Correct statements:
- A: An additional field named maxspan is created. (Yes)
- B: An additional field named duration is created. (Yes)
- C: An additional field named eventcount is created. (Yes)
- D: Events with the same JSESSIONID will be grouped together into a single event. (Yes)
Thus, all four descriptions are true. The provided answer (B, C, D) is missing A, so it appears to be incorrect. The transaction command typically adds eventcount, duration, and maxspan fields and collapses events with the same grouping field into one transaction event.
Mumbai, India
AI Explanation - verified by User4939
on: June 21, 2026
Question 16:
Question 16 asks: A data model consists of which three types of datasets?
- Answer: The three dataset types are Event datasets, Transaction datasets, and Search datasets. The page lists “Events, searches, transactions” (B), which corresponds to those three types (order doesn’t matter).
Why these are correct:
- Event datasets: contain individual events and define which fields/attributes apply to those events.
- Transaction datasets: group related events into a single logical transaction based on start/end conditions or a transaction ID.
- Search datasets: derived from the results of a saved search or query, used when you want to build a dataset from a specific search.
Why the other options are wrong:
- A: “Constraint, field, value” describes attributes or components, not dataset types.
- C: “Field extraction, regex, delimited” are field extraction methods, not dataset types.
- D: “Transaction, session ID, metadata” mixes a dataset type with metadata concepts, not the three dataset types.
If you want, I can walk through how each dataset type is used in building a data model.
Mumbai, India
AI Explanation - verified by User4939
on: June 21, 2026
Question 15:
Question 15 asks which delimiters the Field Extractor (FX) can detect. The Field Extractor supports delimited field extractions using common separators, including:
So the correct set is Tabs, Pipes, Spaces, and Commas (A,B,C,D). The provided answer (A,B,C) is incomplete—the FX can also detect commas as a delimiter.
Notes:
- Use the delimited extraction when your log lines are structured with a consistent separator.
- If values contain the delimiter or spaces within fields, you may need a regex-based extraction or quoting to avoid incorrect splits.
Mumbai, India
AI Explanation - verified by User4939
on: June 21, 2026
Question 5:
Question 5 asks which delimiters the Field Extractor (FX) can use. The answer key here lists Tabs and Pipes (A and B), but FX actually supports all four: Tabs, Pipes, Colons, and Spaces.
Why: FX creates field extractions by splitting an event on a chosen delimiter. Those four delimiters cover common log formats:
- Tabs:
field1\tfield2
- Pipes:
field1|field2
- Colons:
key:value style splits
- Spaces:
field1 field2 (but watch for multiple spaces or spaces within values)
Caveats:
- Spaces can be tricky if values contain spaces; you may need quoting or a different extraction approach (e.g., regex).
- After selecting a delimiter, verify by testing with sample events to confirm the correct fields are created.
In short: correct choices are A, B, C, and D (all four delimiters). The key you provided omits Colons and Spaces, which are also supported.
Mumbai, India
AI Explanation - verified by User4259
on: June 21, 2026
Question 6:
- The correct answer is C: Evaluating stakeholder needs to determine enterprise objectives.
- Why: In COBIT 2019, governance comprises three interrelated activities: evaluate stakeholder needs to determine objectives, set direction through prioritization and decision making, and monitor performance and compliance against the agreed direction and objectives. This reflects the stakeholder-value principle—governance should ensure stakeholder needs are evaluated to establish balanced objectives.
- Why the other options are not the governance element highlighted here:
- A (Building plans to align with the direction set by the governance body) is more about translating governance direction into plans, which is typically a management activity, not a governance objective by itself.
- B (Monitoring activities designed to achieve enterprise objectives) describes monitoring, which is part of governance in COBIT, but the exam question identifies the core governance element as evaluating stakeholder needs (C).
If you want, I can walk through how these concepts fit into the COBIT 2019 governance vs. management roles.
Seville, Spain
AI Explanation - verified by ramncwanaayanda
on: June 21, 2026
Question 1:
You're right: Android cannot be Azure Entra joined. Entra join is Windows-only; Android and iOS are joined via Entra registered (BYOD).
In Question 173, the typical setup shown is:
- Device1 and Device2 are Windows devices.
- Device3 is Android.
- Device4 is iOS.
Based on that:
- Azure Entra joined: Device1 and Device2 (both Windows).
- Azure Entra registered: Device1, Device2, Device3, Device4 (any OS can be registered for BYOD).
So your claim that only Device1 can be joined would be correct only if Device2 were not Windows. If you can confirm Device2’s OS, I can tailor the answer precisely. If not, the standard interpretation (as shown in the explanation) is: Device1 and Device2 join; all four devices can be registered.
Johannesburg, South Africa
AI Explanation - verified by User2294
on: June 21, 2026
Question 10:
Question 10 asks: From the User menu, which actions can a user select? (Choose three.)
- Log Out (B) — standard option to sign out of the account.
- Elevate Roles (C) — temporarily grants higher permissions to perform tasks that require more access.
- Impersonate Users (D) — allows an admin to act as another user for troubleshooting.
The other options are not typically in the User menu:
- Send Notifications (A) — usually part of Notification settings or event-driven actions.
- Order from Service Catalog (E) — accessed via the Catalog, not the User menu.
- Approve Records (F) — part of workflow approvals, not a User menu action.
So the three correct choices are B, C, and D.
Patna, India
YoutubeAndPray
on: June 12, 2026
This exam was very hard and I wouldn't have made it without some exam dumps. Real exam questions were a lifesaver even though I'm exhausted.
Ghana
CertOrBust_2025
on: June 10, 2026
This exam was very hard but teh braindumps helped in a pinch. Even though the dumps were a last resort the real exam questions weren't much different.
Lebanon
j_hernandez_it
on: May 30, 2026
Finished yesterday after struggling with this exam and those real exam questions were very hard. The brain dumps helped when nothing else did.
Ghana
GrindNeverStops
on: May 22, 2026
Finished yesterday and this exam was very hard. Exam dumps definitely helped even though the stress was real.
Norway
layla_it_uae
on: May 21, 2026
Took two attempts but the exam dumps helped with those very hard sections that kept tripping me up. Real exam quetions were spot on although the AI Assistant was not much help.
Saudi Arabia
json_jock
on: May 17, 2026
The exam was very hard and I underestimated the challenge so I had to grind through braindumps to finally pass.
Pakistan
mark_passed_aws
on: May 16, 2026
Spent weeks on the exam dumps only to find the real exam questions were very hard and unexpected. The AI Assistant was helpful but this exam was still a serious challenge.
Turkey
AlmostGaveUp_J
on: May 15, 2026
Underestimated this exam and had to grind through countless brain dumps. It was very hard but the exam dumps eventually got me through.
Mexico
ines_cloudsec
on: May 12, 2026
Took two attempts to clear this exam but the braindumps and AI Assistant were helpful. Real exam quetions were very hard and I was not sure I would pass.
Australia
felix_linuxpro
on: May 12, 2026
Spent weeks using braindumps and the AI Assistant just to feel remotely ready for this exam. Still not sure how I passed it but thankful those resources existed.
Kenya
p1ng_pro
on: May 11, 2026
Didn't expect this exam to be very hard but teh exam dumps were a real test of patience. Passed after several late nights and sifting through brain dumps.
Hong Kong
SnowflakeSteve
on: May 10, 2026
Finally done with this exam after struggling throgh the real exam questions and sifting endless brain dumps. Very hard to get through but those dumps were my only advantage.
Netherlands
zt_zealot
on: May 08, 2026
Three weeks of intense study and the brain dumps still couldn't prepare me for how very hard this exam turned out to be. Real exam quetions were unlike what I encountered in practice tests and surprised me with unexpected twists.
Hong Kong
mark_passed_aws
on: April 26, 2026
Took two attempts but managed to pass this exam with the help of new exam dumps and reviewing lots of real exam questions.
Indonesia
it_dad_of_3
on: April 24, 2026
Underestimated how hard this exam was and ended up diving deeply into exam dumps until it finally clicked. Couldn't have done it without the real exam questions and my own persistence.
Luxembourg
LinuxPlus_Len
on: April 24, 2026
Spent days on end trying to conquer this exm and finally resorted to exam dumps which helped but it was still very hard. If it weren't for the brain dumps and AI Assistant I might still be stuck.
Germany
SnowflakeSteve
on: April 24, 2026
Spent a lot of time studying and found this exam very hard but the exam dumps provided some relief.
Turkey
mike_t_2024
on: April 22, 2026
Spent weeks on braindumps and the AI Assistant figuring out this very hard exam. Wasn't sure I'd pass but just glad it's over now.
New Zealand
OneMoreRetake
on: April 19, 2026
Took two attempts and still found this exam very hard since even with brain dumps you never know what real exam questions you'll face. The AI Assistant was helpful to understand some tricky topics but stress levels were real.
Saudi Arabia
SecOpsGuy
on: April 19, 2026
Spent several nights going over exam dumps and real exam questions yet this exam was very hard and stressful to get through.
Czech Republic
OracleCert_V
on: April 17, 2026
The exam was very hard but the braindumps and the AI Assistant were crucial for study. Thought I would never get throgh it but managed somehow.
Norway
LastMinuteLearner
on: April 15, 2026
Underestimated this exam adn had to grind through several brain dumps just to make it through. It was very hard but the real exam questions I studied helped a lot.
Luxembourg
sam_azure_guy
on: April 11, 2026
Spent weeks stressing over this exam and brain dumps were my last resort. Managed to pass but it was very hard.
Indonesia
p1ng_pro
on: April 01, 2026
Finally done with this challenging exam and the exam dumps didn't cover half the real exam quetions I faced. The AI Assistant might help but it's still tough to predict what's coming.
Brazil
SkippedTheBook
on: March 30, 2026
Three weeks of studying felt pointless after this exam because many real exam questions caught me off guard with there complexity. Spent so much time on brain dumps only to find myself struggling through a very hard test.
Pakistan
PassedOnThird
on: March 27, 2026
The exam was very hard adn it took real exam questions alongside braindumps to finally pass.
Colombia
k8s_kevin
on: March 27, 2026
Real exam quetions were very hard but the exam dumps helped fill in the gaps. The AI Assistant wasn't much use.
South Africa