A database application requires a maximum shared memory segment (shmmax) GB (2147483648 Bytes). Which configuration file should be modified to set this kernel parameter permanently? (Specify the full name of the file, including path.)

/etc/.conf
/etc/sysctl.conf

Answer(s): B

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 23

On a server running the 3.4.50-11 Linux kernel, which file in the /boot directory contains the kernel configuration parameters?

config-linux-3.4.50-11
config-3.4.50-11
system-3.4.50-11
vmlinuz-3.4.50-11
rc.config-3.4.50-11

Answer(s): B

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 24

A new kernel version needs to be compiled to use a new feature. If the old kernel configuration file is available, which make target creates a configuration file for the new kernel based on the configuration of the old kernel?

config, make oldconfig
oldconfig, make oldconfig

Answer(s): B

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 25

What is a key difference between a zImage and bzImage kernel image?

zImage is compressed using gzip, bzImage is compressed using bzip2.
zImage is for 2.6 series kernels, bzImage is for 3.x series kernels.
zImage is limited to 64k, bzImage has no such restriction.
zImage gets loaded completely into low memory. bzImage will load into high memory once low memory is full.

Answer(s): D

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 26

How is the source code for the main Linux kernel modules distributed?

It is included with the Linux kernel source code.
The kernel modules are downloaded on demand as they are used during compilation.
The kernel modules have their own release cycle and can be maintained separately from the Linux kernel source.
It is provided as a separate download alongside the Linux kernel source code of the same version.

Answer(s): A

Show Answer Next Question

Download PDF Next Page

Viewing page 12 of 34
Viewing questions 56 - 60 out of 161 questions

Post your Comments and Discuss LPI 201-450 exam prep with other Community members:

Comments:

Name:

201-450 Exam Discussions & Posts
201-450 AI Verifications

Bootload on: June 23, 2026
Wasn't confident at first but the practice questions really helped.
Luxembourg

Patchset on: September 09, 2026
Cramming with this website saved me time and money so I slowly got through the exam.
Finland

Sshd on: August 30, 2026
Saved so much time and money cramming with the practice questions on this site got me through the exam slow but sure.
United Kingdom

Symlink on: August 19, 2026
This exam was so stressful. The prep material here really helped calm me down.
Portugal

Heap on: July 05, 2026
I wasn't super confident but the practice questions here really helped me learn fast.
Sweden

Microcode on: June 30, 2026
I took my time with the prep on this website and eventually felt confident enough to pass after slow but steady progress.
Canada

Buffer on: September 04, 2026
Wasn't feeling confident at first but the practice questions here helped me learn a ton.
Austria

Parity on: August 25, 2026
Man this exam went way deeper than I thought. The AI assistant on this site helped a lot to fill in the gaps.
Chile

bot on: September 21, 2026
wewo im a bot
Orlando, United States

Symlink on: July 29, 2026
Slow start but passed after solid review time.
Israel

Firmware on: August 21, 2026
Crammed after work then felt chill passing.
Ireland

John on: September 27, 2026
I felt the exam was hard but the prep here really helpe
Chennai, India

Bios on: August 12, 2026
The exam was tougher than I thought but with this website's practice questions it was doable.
Netherlands

Payload on: July 15, 2026
I was unsure at first but the practice questions on this website really helped me learn.
Canada

Hexdump on: August 01, 2026
Saved me time and money got through the exam.
Portugal

Sshd on: August 26, 2026
Man the exam was a grind but thank god for these practice questions. Wouldn't have made it through without this website's prep stuff.
Netherlands

Sudoer on: August 31, 2026
Prep was a lifesaver on this stressful test. Would've bombed without it.
Japan

Bgp on: July 31, 2026
This exam was tougher than I thought with way more stuff to cover. The AI assistant here actually helped a lot in understanding tricky topics quickly.
Austria

John on: September 27, 2026
The exam was tougher than expected. The AI assistant helped me study well for it.
Chennai, India

Systemd on: July 13, 2026
Squeezed in quick study sessions after work with the help of this site and nailed the cert like I wasn't even stressing.
Estonia

Baud on: August 12, 2026
Hard exam but these questions nailed it man.
United Kingdom

Traceroute on: August 15, 2026
I passed the exam but wow it was tough those practice questions were lifesavers.
Hong Kong

Endian on: August 05, 2026
This exam was a bit harder than I thought but still got through with help from the practice questions.
Taiwan

Strace on: August 12, 2026
Short study sessions between work helped pass.
United States

MAN IN DISTRESS on: September 22, 2026
AHHHHHHHHH HELP ME
Orlando, United States

Mtu on: June 27, 2026
Exam was tough but the practice questions here got me through.
Canada

Firmware on: September 17, 2026
The exam was harder than I thought but with the practice questions here it was still okay.
Taiwan

ZeroDay on: August 31, 2026
This exam was a beast but these questions on the site helped me get through it.
Poland

Sai Pat on: October 02, 2026
Good, It's really helpful
Bengaluru, India

Firmware on: August 22, 2026
This exam was tough and covered more than I expected. The AI assistant on this site saved my life honestly.
UAE

Anonymous User on: October 13, 2026
Upload this exam please! I have been working on this certification for some time.
Monroe, United States

Semlock on: June 27, 2026
Took me a while but passed.
Costa Rica

Strace on: August 31, 2026
The exam was tough but these questions helped.
Singapore

Deadlock on: July 07, 2026
This exam had more stuff than I thought but it was alright. The AI assistant on this site really helped me get through the extra material.
Finland

Socket on: June 18, 2026
The exam was super stressful. Glad the prep on this website helped me out.
Norway

Packet on: August 15, 2026
Saved a bunch of time cramming with the exam prep here so it took me longer but passed.
Italy

Paging on: July 03, 2026
The exam covered way more topics than I thought so it was pretty challenging. The AI assistant on this site really helped to explain things and made studying a bit easier.
UAE

Initd on: September 04, 2026
The exam was harder than I thought but using practice questions from this site made it manageable.
Kuwait

Bootload on: August 17, 2026
At first I wasn't confident but going through relevant questions on this site really helped me understand better.
Brazil

Synack on: August 21, 2026
Exam was tough but these questions helped.
Taiwan

Hexdump on: July 25, 2026
Dude this exam was crazy tough but those prep questions saved my neck.
Austria

Uptime on: August 15, 2026
Man this exam was stressful but the practice questions here really helped. So glad I made it through with that.
Lithuania

Pdu on: June 19, 2026
Super stressful but this site helped.
Norway

Scsi on: August 10, 2026
Was lost at first but practice questions here saved me man.
Luxembourg

Mtu on: August 31, 2026
Saved time and money with cramming got through exam slowly.
Spain

Udp on: September 20, 2026
Working and studying sucks but man I'm relieved.
Sweden

Scsi on: July 25, 2026
The exam was a real stress bomb. Good thing the prep stuff helped me calm down and pass it.
Germany

Sandbox on: September 15, 2026
This test was hard but prep questions helped.
Liechtenstein

Traceroute on: July 09, 2026
Passed this exam but man it was tough.
Ireland

Packet on: September 11, 2026
At first I didn't feel confident about this exam but using the practice questions here really helped me learn a lot.
Saudi Arabia

AI Explanation - verified by User2654 on: September 11, 2026
Question 27:
Correct answer: A. Trusted devices
A trusted device solution recognizes an enrolled device—such as an employee’s laptop or phone—and can allow authentication with minimal user interaction. It fits the requirements because:

Employees can work from any location, including remote sites and offices worldwide.

Login can be relatively seamless after the device is registered.

It does not require distributing additional physical authentication equipment.

Why the others are less suitable:

Geotagging: Identifies location, but location alone is not a strong authentication method and may prevent legitimate remote access.

Smart cards: Provide strong authentication but require card readers and physical cards, increasing equipment and management requirements.

Time-based logins: Typically involve one-time codes that users must enter, making the experience less seamless and potentially requiring a token or authenticator app.

The answer key’s “Trusted devices” is reasonable for these stated requirements, although in a real environment it should ideally be combined with another factor because a compromised trusted device could enable account access.
Anonymous

AI Explanation - verified by User7103 on: September 22, 2026
Question 29:
Correct answer: A. Hashing
A hash creates a fixed-length value representing the software’s contents. After release, the company can calculate the file’s hash again and compare it with the original:

Matching hashes: The software likely has not changed.

Different hashes: The software was modified or corrupted.

Why the others are incorrect:

Encryption: Protects confidentiality by making data unreadable; it does not primarily detect changes.

Baselines: Define an approved system or configuration state, but they are not the specific integrity mechanism here.

Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with substitute values.

In real deployments, a digital signature is often preferred because it verifies both integrity and the publisher’s identity, but hashing is the best available answer.
Opelika, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User6155 on: September 21, 2026
Question 29:
Correct answer: D — Plan Human Resource Management
Organizational theory explains how people, teams, and organizational units behave and interact. It helps the project manager design an effective project organization by considering:

Reporting relationships

Organizational structures

Leadership styles

Team maturity

Individual and group behavior

Communication and motivation

In Plan Human Resource Management, the project manager identifies and documents project roles, responsibilities, required skills, reporting relationships, and the staffing management plan. Organizational theory supports this planning work.
Why the other options are less appropriate:

Acquire Project Team: Focuses on obtaining the people needed for the project.

Develop Project Team: Focuses on improving team skills, relationships, and performance.

Manage Project Team: Focuses on tracking performance, resolving issues, and managing changes within the team.

Organizational theory may influence those processes, but in the PMI process framework it is specifically listed as a tool and technique for Plan Human Resource Management.
Johannesburg, South Africa

AI Explanation - verified by User1701 on: October 08, 2026
Question 22:
Correct answer: B — AAA
A RADIUS server provides Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting:

Authentication: Verifies who the user is.

Authorization: Determines what the authenticated user is allowed to access.

Accounting: Records activity such as login times and resource usage.

RADIUS is commonly used for centralized access control to network devices, VPNs, and wireless networks.
Why the others are incorrect:

CIA: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability—the three core security goals.

ACL: Access Control List, which defines permitted or denied traffic or access.

PEM: A certificate and key encoding format, not the primary function of RADIUS.

Abuja, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by User1673 on: October 17, 2026
Question 116:
Answer: D. Configure a VLAN
The likely goal is to isolate the fax machine’s traffic from normal network traffic. Placing it in a separate VLAN limits broadcasts and prevents fax-related traffic or problems from affecting other devices on the switch.

New Cat 5 line: Useful if testing shows a damaged cable, but the issue is specifically triggered when the fax is active.

802.1Q tagging: Used to carry multiple VLANs across trunk links; it does not solve the issue by itself.

Change the MTU: Relevant to packet-size or fragmentation problems, not typical fax-related interference.

A VLAN is the expected exam answer because it provides logical segmentation. In a real troubleshooting situation, also check for a faulty fax, switch port, cabling, or electrical interference before assuming VLAN configuration is the root fix.
Auckland, New Zealand

AI Explanation - verified by User9267 on: September 24, 2026
Question 55:
Correct answer: B — Ramen
Why:

Ramen is a Linux worm associated with Red Hat Linux 6.2 and 7.0 systems.

It spreads by scanning randomly generated IP addresses using tools such as synscan.

It exploits vulnerable network services, including web-related services, and may leave malicious files or altered web content.

The tar.gz file is also a clue because it is a common Linux archive/package format.

Why the others are incorrect:

Code Red: Primarily targeted Microsoft IIS servers running Windows.

LoveLetter: Spread mainly through email attachments.

Nimda: A Windows-based worm that spread through email, web servers, and network shares.

Therefore, the answer key’s B is correct.
Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia

AI Explanation - verified by jeff.impale663 on: October 04, 2026
Question 2:
Yes—your reasoning is correct. The stated “No” for User2 appears incorrect, assuming User2 completes MFA.
For User2:

User2 is in Group1, so CA2 applies.

CA2 targets Office 365.

CA2 requires MFA OR an app protection policy.

User2 has no app protection policy, but if User2 successfully completes MFA, the OR condition is satisfied.

The device being noncompliant does not matter because CA2 does not require device compliance.

CA1 applies only to Global Administrators. Unless User2 is also a Global Administrator, CA1 does not apply.

Therefore, User2 should be granted access to Microsoft 365 after completing MFA.
Correct result for User2: Yes, not No. The answer key’s explanation incorrectly describes CA2 as requiring stricter combined controls, even though the policy explicitly says “Require one of the selected controls.”
Vantaa, Finland

AI Explanation - verified by ajaykamath69055 on: September 22, 2026
Question 9:
Correct answer: C — Markdown-based text boxes
In a Databricks dashboard, use a text box with Markdown to add headings, labels, descriptions, and section dividers. For example:

# Development

# Testing

# Production

This lets all three sections remain on the same dashboard while clearly identifying them.
Why the others are incorrect:

Separate endpoints: relate to compute or connectivity, not dashboard labels.

Separate queries: retrieve or transform data but do not designate visual sections.

Direct text written into the dashboard in editing mode: dashboards use text boxes, typically with Markdown formatting, rather than arbitrary text placed directly on the canvas.

Chiyoda City, Japan

AI Explanation - verified by jltobiasq on: September 30, 2026
Question 23:
Question 23: No (B)
A prompt shield for user prompts is designed to detect attacks in the user’s direct text input, such as jailbreak attempts or instructions intended to bypass safeguards.
It does not adequately address the risks described:

Unsafe images: Requires image/content moderation before the image is processed.

Hidden instructions embedded in images: These are indirect prompt injections contained in untrusted image content or extracted text, not necessarily in the user’s typed prompt.

Therefore, configuring only a prompt shield for user prompts does not meet the goal. The answer key’s B is correct.
Wissous, France

AI Explanation - verified by User3169 on: September 13, 2026
Question 6:
Correct answer: B. SLA (Service-Level Agreement)
An SLA defines the expected level of service between a customer and a vendor. It commonly includes:

Response and resolution time frames

Availability or uptime requirements

Performance targets

Support obligations

Penalties for failing to meet requirements

Why the others are less appropriate:

SOW (Statement of Work): Defines the project’s scope, tasks, and deliverables.

MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Describes cooperation and responsibilities between parties.

MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a general mutual understanding, usually without detailed enforceable service targets.

Therefore, the agreement specifying how quickly a vendor must respond is an SLA.
Jonesboro, United States

AI Explanation - verified by khaleel_mehdi on: September 28, 2026
Question 36:
The answer key shows A (1), but I believe the correct answer is B (2).
A single Teams auto attendant supports:

A business-hours greeting

An after-hours greeting

A holiday greeting

However, with business hours set to Monday–Friday, 09:00–17:00, the same after-hours greeting would normally apply to both:

Weekday evenings/nights

Saturdays and Sundays

That does not meet the requirement for separate weekday after-hours and weekend greetings.
A possible two-auto-attendant design is:

Auto attendant 1

- Business hours: office-hours greeting - Holidays: national-holiday greeting - Outside those periods: route calls to Auto attendant 2

Auto attendant 2

- Weekend schedule: weekend greeting - Its after-hours flow: weekday outside-office-hours greeting
Therefore, two auto attendants are needed to provide four distinct time-based greetings.
Hyderabad, India

AI Explanation - verified by phill93 on: September 11, 2026
Question 88:
Correct answer: B — Automatic model evaluation
The company needs to compare the toxicity of outputs from several LLMs with the least operational overhead. Automatic evaluation is best because it uses automated metrics or evaluators to analyze model responses consistently and at scale.

Crowd-sourced evaluation: Requires recruiting and managing many evaluators.

Human-worker evaluation: Provides human judgment but requires coordination, labeling instructions, and quality control.

RLHF: Is a training and alignment process, not simply a low-overhead model comparison method.

Automatic model evaluation: Quickly evaluates outputs using predefined toxicity or quality metrics with minimal manual effort.

For exam questions, choose automated evaluation when the requirement emphasizes speed, repeatability, scalability, and minimal human involvement.
Helsinki, Finland

AI Explanation - verified by User3669 on: October 14, 2026
Question 1:
The answer key selects B: Enable Photon acceleration for a job compute cluster, but this answer is incomplete.
The requirements imply that production ingestion should use a job cluster with autoscaling:

Job compute isolates production pipelines from interactive development and terminates after the job completes.

Autoscaling adds and removes workers during telemetry spikes, directly addressing bursty workloads.

Photon can improve performance and reduce processing time, but it does not provide autoscaling, schema-drift handling, or exactly-once processing by itself.

Why the other choices are unsuitable:

A — Shared compute: violates production isolation and can allow development workloads to affect ingestion.

C — Larger fixed cluster: may improve capacity but cannot adapt efficiently to changing workloads.

D — Disable autoscaling: directly conflicts with the requirement to handle telemetry spikes.

Therefore, B is the best available option only because it specifies a job cluster, and Photon is beneficial. However, the complete configuration should be a scheduled job cluster with autoscaling, optionally using Photon. Schema drift and reliable incremental file ingestion would be handled separately with Auto Loader and checkpoints.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by as5948 on: October 12, 2026
Question 24:
Correct answer: B — Creates unit tests for the selected code.
The /tests slash command in GitHub Copilot Chat asks Copilot to generate test code based on the currently selected code. It can infer scenarios such as:

Normal or expected input

Boundary values

Invalid input

Potential error conditions

It generates tests; it does not run them or identify failures itself. Therefore:

A is incorrect: it creates test code, not detailed test documentation.

C is incorrect: it does not primarily integrate external testing frameworks.

D is incorrect: executing tests requires your development environment or test runner.

Patiala, India

AI Explanation - verified by User6977 on: September 24, 2026
Question 2:
Question 2 describes consignment inventory.
The correct answers are B, C and F:

B — The most significant risks are held by SQ.

Although LM insures the cars, SQ retains the main risks because: - Legal title remains with SQ. - LM can return cars at any time without penalty. - SQ bears risks such as unsold inventory and changes in value.

C — SQ should recognise the cars as inventory.

The cars remain under SQ’s control until LM sells them to a third party. Therefore, SQ continues to recognise them as inventory. LM does not recognise them as its own inventory.

F — SQ recognises revenue when LM sells a car to a third party.

Delivery to LM is not a sale because the significant risks and rewards have not transferred. Revenue is recognised only when the car is sold to the final customer.
The other options are incorrect:

A: LM does not hold the most significant risks.

D: LM does not recognise the cars as inventory.

E: SQ should not recognise revenue when cars are merely delivered to LM.

The key exam principle is: legal title alone is not decisive; assess who controls the goods and bears the significant risks and rewards.
Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by User2639 on: September 22, 2026
Question 1:
Correct answer: B. Transfer
Risk transfer means shifting the financial impact or responsibility for a risk to another party. Cyber insurance is a classic example: the company pays an insurer to assume some of the financial loss associated with specified cyber incidents.

Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.

Transfer: Moving the risk’s financial impact to a third party, such as an insurer.

Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact through controls, such as patching or employee training.

Avoid: Eliminating the activity that creates the risk.

The insurance does not necessarily stop an attack from occurring; it primarily helps manage the consequences, which makes transfer the best choice.
Dallas, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User2720 on: October 10, 2026
Question 87:
Question 87: C — Footprinting the internal network
I can’t see the [Image] in the prompt, but based on the answer choices and the hostname shown, the activity most likely involves using DNS information to learn about the organization’s internal systems.

Footprinting is reconnaissance used to map an organization’s network, hosts, naming conventions, and services.

A name such as fshare.int.complia.org suggests an internal file-sharing host (fshare) and an internal naming structure (int).

This can reveal useful information to an attacker before attempting exploitation.

Why the other choices are less likely:

ISP-assigned address space: Usually determined through public registration and DNS data, not an internal hostname.

DNS sinkhole bypass: Would involve avoiding redirected malicious-domain queries.

Initial access: DNS reconnaissance alone does not compromise the server.

Data exfiltration: DNS tunneling typically generates many encoded or unusually long subdomain queries, not simply a meaningful internal hostname.

San Diego, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User6794 on: September 12, 2026
Question 10:
The stated answer is D, but it appears flawed.
N wants you to delay recording purchase invoices to improve the reported quarterly profit margin. That would manipulate the accounting records by:

Understating expenses and liabilities

Overstating profit

Misleading users of the financial information

Potentially breaching integrity, objectivity, and professional competence and due care

The best practical response is C: document the situation and present the facts to your manager. You should also tell N that the invoices must be recorded in the correct accounting period.
Option D is not convincing because it says “no rules have been broken” and “do nothing.” Deliberately postponing invoices to meet a target is precisely the kind of ethical issue that should be challenged and, if necessary, escalated.
Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by doviethoang963 on: October 14, 2026
Question 3:
Correct answer: D — Flow Builder
A Screen Flow in Flow Builder can create a form or wizard that guides users through multiple screens. Users can enter information, make selections, and submit the completed flow—for example, recording why a client was lost.
Why the others are incorrect:

Process Builder: Automates actions based on record changes but does not create interactive forms.

Approval Process: Routes records for approval; it is not designed to collect information through a wizard.

Outbound Message: Sends information to an external system; it does not provide a user interface.

The key clue is “form” and “wizard”—these indicate a screen flow built with Flow Builder.
Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam

AI Explanation - verified by User7918 on: September 25, 2026
Question 10:
Answer: C — Split the Logged column using at as the delimiter.
The value:
2018-12-31 at 08:59
contains both a date and a time, so it is not directly suitable as a date column. Splitting on at produces two values:

2018-12-31 — the date

08:59 — the time

The date portion can then be assigned the Date data type. Once loaded into Power BI as a date, it can support the built-in date hierarchy, such as Year ? Quarter ? Month ? Day.
Why the other options are unsuitable:

Changing the original column to Date may fail because it still contains the text at and a time.

Extracting the last 11 characters does not isolate the date.

Extracting the first 11 characters gets the date plus a space, but the option does not specify changing the result to the Date type.

The answer key’s C is therefore the best choice, assuming the resulting date part is typed as Date.
Hendrik-Ido-Ambacht, The Netherlands

AI Explanation - verified by User4042 on: September 30, 2026
Question 8:
Correct answer: D — Format the dataset as a JSONL file with prompt-completion pairs and upload the file.
The answer key’s C appears incorrect. Tracing can help analyze model behavior and evaluate inference calls, but it is not the first required step for configuring a fine-tuning job.
Why D is correct:

Fine-tuning requires a properly formatted training dataset.

For classification or instruction-style fine-tuning, examples are supplied in JSONL format.

Each line represents one training example, typically containing the input prompt and the desired completion or label.

The file must then be uploaded or made available to the Microsoft Foundry fine-tuning workflow.

The other options are not prerequisites:

A: Prompt Flow is useful for prompt experimentation, but it is not required to start fine-tuning.

B: You do not need to deploy the base model to an online endpoint before fine-tuning.

C: Tracing supports observability and evaluation, but it does not prepare the fine-tuning job or dataset.

Lagos, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by User5096 on: October 12, 2026
Question 4:
Question 4 tests what system prompts can and cannot do.
The answer key indicates:

System prompts can authorize users — No

- A system prompt can tell the model to follow access-related rules, but it is not a security control. - Authentication and authorization must be enforced by your application, identity service, or backend—not by the model.

System prompts can reduce TPM consumption — Yes, with qualification

- A prompt can instruct the model to be concise, avoid repetition, and limit its response length. - This may reduce output tokens and therefore overall token usage. - However, the system prompt itself consumes input tokens, so it does not automatically reduce TPM.

System prompts guide generative AI behavior — Yes

- They define the model’s role, tone, goals, restrictions, and response style. - For example: “Answer briefly and use bullet points.”
So the expected selections are No, Yes, Yes. The second statement should be understood as reducing token usage through response constraints, not as changing the service’s TPM quota.
Hyderabad, India

AI Explanation - verified by User6921 on: October 16, 2026
Users must provide justification if they change the label from confidential/internal to confidential/external label. I said no
Based on the wording, Yes is likely correct, not No—assuming the label policy exhibit has “Require users to provide justification when changing a label” enabled.
Changing from Confidential/Internal to Confidential/External is a label change. When justification is required, the user must explain the change before it is applied, regardless of whether the destination label is more or less restrictive.
The answer depends on the published label-policy setting, which is missing from the supplied image. If that setting is enabled, your answer should be:
Statement 2: Yes.
Bogotá, Colombia

AI Explanation - verified by User4405 on: September 19, 2026
Wrong answer. You use groups to assign devices to it. The use those groups as scope in policies, effectively passing devices between policies
You’re right—the answer key’s B (Use sub-rules) is incorrect. The better answer is D: Use groups.

Assign endpoints to a group based on the result of one policy.

Use that group as the scope of another policy.

This effectively passes the endpoints from one policy’s processing flow to another.

Sub-rules create branches within a single policy; they are not the standard mechanism for transferring endpoints between separate policies.
Madrid, Spain

AI Explanation - verified by wawafap132 on: September 11, 2026
Question 96:
Correct answer: 4 (C).
Limits.getDmlStatements() counts the number of DML operations performed in the transaction, including savepoint operations:

insert con; ? 1

Database.setSavepoint(); ? 2

update con; ? 3

Database.rollback(sp_admin); ? 4

The SOQL query on line 3 does not count as a DML statement. Also, rolling back the transaction changes the data back to its earlier state, but it does not reset governor-limit counters.
Therefore, line 8 outputs 4.
Patna, India

AI Explanation - verified by andrewdocherty97 on: October 18, 2026
Question 137:
Correct answers: D and E — Start the print spooler service and set it to Automatic.

Start the print spooler service: The Print Spooler manages print jobs and allows Windows to communicate with printers. Starting it restores printing immediately.

Set the Print Spooler to Automatic: This makes Windows start the service during each boot, preventing the user from needing help every morning.

Why the others are incorrect:

No dependencies: Dependencies help determine which services start first; changing this does not solve the recurring issue.

Recovery: Take no action: This would prevent Windows from responding appropriately if the service fails.

Printer extensions and notifications: Not required for basic printing.

Log on as the user: The spooler normally runs under a system service account; using the user’s account is unnecessary and potentially less secure.

Redditch, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by Tholang2016 on: September 11, 2026
Question 193:
The correct answer is A — MIRR uses a more realistic reinvestment assumption than IRR.

IRR assumes that interim cash flows can be reinvested at the project’s own IRR. This may be unrealistic, especially when the IRR is very high.

MIRR assumes reinvestment at a specified rate, usually the company’s cost of capital or another realistic reinvestment rate.

The other statements are incorrect:

B: MIRR does not specifically favour projects with long payback periods.

C: MIRR and IRR can rank competing projects differently.

D: MIRR is not always higher than IRR; it may be higher or lower depending on the cash flows and reinvestment rate.

Maseru, Lesotho

AI Explanation - verified by User5120 on: September 21, 2026
Question 11:
Correct answer: B — Databricks web application
In the classic Databricks architecture, the control plane hosts the Databricks management services, including the web application. Users access the workspace UI from the control plane.
The other components are associated with the data plane:

Driver node: Coordinates Spark jobs and runs in the compute environment.

Worker node: Executes tasks and processes data.

Databricks Filesystem (DBFS): Provides storage access for data used by compute resources.

Exam tip: The control plane manages and orchestrates the workspace, while the data plane performs computation and processes data.
Charlotte, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User2916 on: October 17, 2026
Question 89:
Correct answer: C — AWS Global Accelerator
AWS Global Accelerator improves network performance by directing user traffic to the nearest AWS edge location. From there, traffic travels over the AWS private global network to the application’s AWS Region, often reducing latency and improving availability.
Why the others are incorrect:

Route table: Controls how traffic is routed within a VPC; it does not use the AWS worldwide network to accelerate internet traffic.

AWS Transit Gateway: Connects multiple VPCs and on-premises networks through a central gateway, but it is not primarily an internet traffic acceleration service.

Amazon VPC: Provides isolated virtual networking in AWS, but it does not itself accelerate traffic globally.

A useful exam clue is: “send traffic through the AWS worldwide network infrastructure” ? AWS Global Accelerator.
Cairo, Egypt

AI Explanation - verified by User7357 on: October 01, 2026
Question 34:
Correct answer: C — periodic review of alignment with business management goals.
Senior management is most likely to support information security when they see that it continuously helps achieve business objectives, such as reducing business risk, enabling new services, or meeting strategic requirements.

A: CEO-sponsored formal policy — demonstrates executive support, but sponsorship at one point in time may not sustain commitment.

B: Security awareness training — primarily improves employee behavior, not senior management commitment.

C: Periodic alignment reviews — ongoing reviews show that security remains relevant, supports business priorities, and uses resources appropriately.

D: Senior management signoff on the strategy — useful for governance and accountability, but signoff is generally a one-time event.

The exam emphasis is that security must remain aligned with business goals, rather than operate as an isolated technical function.
Bacoor, Philippines

AI Explanation - verified by User4666 on: September 17, 2026
Question 5:
Correct answer: No.
Azure virtual machines use the Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, not Platform as a Service (PaaS).

IaaS: You deploy and manage virtual machines, including the operating system and installed software. Azure manages the physical datacenter, hosts, and networking infrastructure.

PaaS: Azure manages the infrastructure and operating system, while you deploy and manage your application code. Examples include Azure App Service and Azure Functions.

Therefore, recommending PaaS does not meet the requirement to deploy Azure virtual machines. The suitable model is IaaS, as stated in Question 6.
Lagos, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by neal.humphries2 on: September 24, 2026
Question 28:
Correct answer: A — To use empiricism, based on knowledge that comes from experience.
This is not usually presented as one of the core Lean Startup concepts applied in PRINCE2 Agile. Empiricism is more strongly associated with Scrum, where decisions are based on observation, inspection, and adaptation.
The other options are central Lean Startup ideas:

Build, measure, learn: Create something, assess real feedback or results, and adapt.

Minimum viable product (MVP): Produce the smallest useful version to test assumptions and reduce uncertainty.

Fail fast: Test ideas early so that unsuccessful approaches can be identified before significant time or cost is invested.

Therefore, the answer key’s A is consistent with the distinction between Lean Startup and Scrum concepts.
Sheffield, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User1234 on: September 28, 2026
Question 12:
Correct answer: B. Port security
A MAC flooding attack sends many fake source MAC addresses to a switch. The goal is to fill the switch’s CAM/MAC address table, causing the switch to treat unknown traffic like a hub and broadcast it out many ports. This may allow an attacker to capture traffic.
Port security mitigates this by limiting which and how many MAC addresses can appear on a switch port. It can:

Allow only approved MAC addresses

Limit the number of learned addresses

Shut down or restrict a port when a violation occurs

Why the other options are less suitable:

Load balancer: Distributes application traffic; it does not protect switch MAC tables.

IPS: May detect some attack traffic, but it is not the direct control for limiting MAC addresses on switch ports.

NGFW: Filters routed network traffic, while this attack targets Layer 2 switch behavior.

The key clue is flooding the MAC address table, which points directly to switch port security.
Atlanta, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User8052 on: October 19, 2026
Question 6:
Question 6: The answer key appears incorrect. The best answer is B: “You want to minimize the level of management by the customer.”
With SaaS, the cloud provider manages nearly everything:

Infrastructure and servers

Operating systems and runtime

Application maintenance and updates

Much of the security and availability management

The customer mainly manages users, access, configuration, and customer-owned data.
Why the other options are weaker:

A: A balance between flexibility and provider management is more characteristic of PaaS.

C: SaaS does not maximize customer flexibility; IaaS provides more control and flexibility.

D: Shifting emphasis between flexibility and provider management is not the primary reason to choose SaaS.

So, the stated answer C conflicts with the usual cloud service model definitions.
Bellevue, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User2843 on: October 01, 2026
Question 4:
Correct answers: A and B — CPU and Memory.
A VM Class in vSphere with Supervisor defines the standard hardware configuration for Supervisor-managed VMs. The core resources are:

CPU: Number of virtual CPUs and, where applicable, CPU reservations.

Memory: Amount of memory and memory reservations.

When a VM is deployed using that class, it receives the defined CPU and memory configuration.
The other options are not the best answers here:

Network interface: Usually configured through the VM or workload networking configuration.

PCI devices: Specialized hardware and not a standard VM Class resource in this context.

Storage: Typically selected through storage policies or the VM’s storage configuration.

Therefore, choose A and B.
Cairo, Egypt

AI Explanation - verified by gurax2605 on: October 20, 2026
Question 3:
The answer key appears to be incorrect. The best answer is B: 3 and 4 only.

Penalty clauses (3): Set a financial consequence when the supplier fails to meet agreed performance standards. In commercial contracts, these must be drafted carefully because unenforceable penalties may be challenged; liquidated damages are often preferred.

Service credits (4): Reduce the amount payable, or provide a credit, when the supplier misses SLA targets. They are a common remedy for service underperformance.

The other options are less suitable:

Warranties (1): Usually provide assurances about quality, condition, or compliance, but they are not the normal direct remedy for missing ongoing SLA targets.

Force majeure clauses (2): Excuse or protect a supplier from liability when exceptional events outside its control prevent performance. They do not compensate the buyer for ordinary poor performance.

The explanation on the page itself says that penalty clauses and service credits are the relevant remedies, which supports B, not the stated answer C (1 and 3).
Harare, Zimbabwe

AI Explanation - verified by User3213 on: September 24, 2026
Question 178:
Correct answer: B. Digital signatures
A digital signature supports nonrepudiation because it:

Verifies the sender’s identity using their private key.

Confirms the transaction was not altered after signing.

Provides evidence that the signer approved or originated the transaction.

Why the others are weaker:

Digital certificates: Bind an identity to a public key, but do not themselves prove that a specific transaction was signed.

Encrypted passwords: Protect confidentiality or authentication, but generally do not provide transaction-level nonrepudiation.

One-time passwords: Authenticate a user for a session or transaction, but usually do not provide durable proof of who authorized the electronic record.

In exam questions, distinguish digital certificates—which support identity validation—from digital signatures, which provide the signed evidence needed for nonrepudiation.
Johannesburg, South Africa

AI Explanation - verified by User6492 on: October 07, 2026
Question 32:
Correct answer: B — Define an IP address for the CPM Ethernet port.
The Boot Options File (BOF) contains information the router needs during boot, such as:

Where to find the TiMOS runtime image

Which configuration file to load

The IP address and related settings for the CPM management Ethernet port

This management address can allow the router to access files such as software images or configuration files over the network during boot.
Why the others are incorrect:

A: User authorization is configured in the router’s security configuration, not primarily in the BOF.

C: Hardware initialization is performed by the boot process and system software.

D: The system date and time are configured separately, often through NTP or CLI settings.

Lagos, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by User8379 on: September 22, 2026
so the correct answer is ?
The correct three selections are:

Admin access to the deployment pipeline

Contributor access to the Development and Test workspaces

Viewer access to the Production workspace

So, using the option order shown, the answer is B, D, and E.
The displayed key, B and E, is incomplete because the developers also need Viewer access to Production to view production items. They should not have Contributor access there, since that would allow modifications or deployments to Production.
Delhi, India

AI Explanation - verified by User6966 on: September 23, 2026
Question 9:
Correct answers: B and D — Warehouse size and number of clusters.
Snowflake virtual warehouse credits are primarily determined by:

Warehouse size: Larger warehouses use more credits per unit of time than smaller ones.

Number of clusters: A multi-cluster warehouse can run multiple clusters, and each active cluster consumes credits. Therefore, increasing the maximum or active cluster count can increase consumption.

The following do not directly determine compute-layer credit usage:

Number of users: More users may cause more workload, but users themselves do not consume credits.

Amount of data processed: Snowflake warehouses are not charged directly by the amount of data scanned. However, processing more data may cause the warehouse to run longer, indirectly increasing credits.

Also remember that actual usage depends on how long the warehouse runs, including any configured auto-suspend and auto-resume behavior.
Columbus, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User5153 on: September 23, 2026
Question 1:
The answer key appears to be incorrect for Box 1.
Correct selections should be:

Search & Intelligence in the Microsoft 365 admin center — No

- Search & Intelligence is used to configure and analyze Microsoft Search, including bookmarks, acronyms, Q&As, and search insights. - It is not the location for reviewing administrative actions.

Audit in the Microsoft Defender portal — Yes

- The Defender portal provides access to audit and investigation capabilities for security-related activities across Microsoft 365.

Audit in the Microsoft Purview portal — Yes

- Microsoft Purview Audit records user and administrator activities across Microsoft 365 services. - You can search audit records to determine what actions were performed, by whom, and when.
Therefore, I believe the correct pattern is No, Yes, Yes, not “Yes” for all three. The key concept is that administrative activity is reviewed through the unified audit log, available through Purview Audit and, in relevant scenarios, the Defender portal.
Cairo, Egypt

AI Explanation - verified by User4615 on: October 01, 2026
Question 29:
Correct answer: A. Hashing
A cryptographic hash produces a fixed-length value based on the software’s contents. The company can calculate and securely store the hash of the approved final version. Later, it recalculates the hash:

Matching hashes: The software is likely unchanged.

Different hashes: The software or its contents have been modified.

Hashing provides integrity verification. It does not prevent tampering, so the original hash must be protected from unauthorized changes. In real-world software distribution, a digital signature is often preferred because it also verifies the publisher’s identity, but that is not one of the available options.

Encryption: Protects confidentiality, not primarily integrity.

Baselines: Document expected configurations and support comparison, but hashing is more directly suited to verifying file integrity.

Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with tokens and is unrelated to software tampering.

Annandale, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User1268 on: September 15, 2026
Question 193:
Correct answer: D — Cloud Services
When Snowflake returns a result from the query result cache, it does not need to execute the query again. Therefore:

Compute: Not used; no virtual warehouse is required.

Data Storage: Not scanned again.

Metadata: May help Snowflake manage and validate cached results, but it is not the Snowflake architectural layer identified as serving the request.

Cloud Services: Handles query coordination, metadata services, authentication, and result-cache access.

The key exam distinction is that Cloud Services is always involved, while a virtual warehouse is bypassed when a valid cached result is available.
Noida, India

AI Explanation - verified by User3923 on: September 27, 2026
Question 17:
Correct answer: B — Enabling malware detection through a UTM.
The company accepts PDF uploads, which could contain malware or malicious content. A UTM (Unified Threat Management) appliance can inspect uploaded files using antivirus and malware-detection capabilities before they reach internal systems or users.
Why the others are less suitable:

A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS mainly detects suspicious network traffic. It is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents.

C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and can improve availability, but does not specifically detect malware.

D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect web requests, but malware scanning of PDF files is not its primary function.

The key clue is file uploads, which points to malware inspection, not primarily network intrusion or web-request filtering.
Atlanta, United States

AI Explanation - verified by szb.brian on: September 14, 2026
Question 1:
Correct answer: B. Transfer
Purchasing cyber insurance is a risk transfer strategy. The company shifts some of the financial consequences of a cyber incident to an insurance provider in exchange for paying premiums.

Accept: Acknowledges the risk without taking additional action.

Transfer: Shifts the risk or financial impact to another party, such as an insurer.

Mitigate: Reduces the likelihood or impact through controls like patching, MFA, or segmentation.

Avoid: Eliminates the activity that creates the risk.

The answer key’s B is correct. Note that insurance does not eliminate the underlying threat; it primarily helps transfer the financial impact.
Yangon, Myanmar

AI Explanation - verified by User3287 on: September 25, 2026
Question 1:
Correct answer: A — Configure SetupComplete.cmd in %windir%\Setup\Scripts.
SetupComplete.cmd runs automatically after Windows Setup completes and before the first user signs in. It is useful for applying final configuration to a newly deployed or generalized VM, such as:

Installing software

Applying configuration changes

Calling PowerShell scripts

Running setup or customization commands

The batch file can invoke a PowerShell script, for example:

cmd powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass -File C:\Scripts\ConfigureVM.ps1

Why the other options are less suitable:

GPO logon script: Runs only when a user logs on and depends on domain/GPO processing.

GPO startup script: Runs during startup, but requires the VM to be domain joined and receives the applicable GPO.

Place scripts in a VHD: Merely makes the scripts available; it does not automatically execute them.

The explanation shown on the page discusses Azure’s Custom Script Extension, but that does not match the listed on-premises Hyper-V scenario. For the options provided, A is the best answer.
New Delhi, India

AI Explanation - verified by User6463 on: October 05, 2026
Question 93:
Correct answer: False (B).
It is not a best practice to define a clustering key on every table. Snowflake automatically stores data in micro-partitions and often provides effective pruning without user-defined clustering.
A clustering key may be appropriate when:

The table is large.

Queries frequently filter or join on particular columns.

The table’s natural data order does not support good micro-partition pruning.

Clustering improves performance enough to justify its maintenance cost.

Defining clustering keys unnecessarily can add compute and storage costs because Snowflake may need to recluster data. Therefore, clustering should be evaluated using query performance and clustering information rather than applied universally.
Chennai, India

AI Explanation - verified by User8102 on: September 29, 2026
Scanner
The scanner should be connected to the surge protector, not a battery-backed UPS outlet.

Scanning is not essential during a power outage.

A scanner can consume UPS battery power without helping the user save cloud documents or shut down safely.

The UPS should be reserved for the computer, monitor, and necessary network equipment.

The surge protector helps protect the scanner from voltage spikes, but it will not keep it running during an outage.

Lilongwe, Malawi

AI Explanation - verified by User1638 on: September 11, 2026
Question 20:
Correct answer: A — Determine an appropriate format for the presentation.
Before presenting requirements, Gary should consider:

The audience and stakeholders

The complexity and type of requirements

The communication method and level of detail needed

Whether to use diagrams, models, documents, demonstrations, or slides

This supports the BABOK task Communicate Business Analysis Information, which requires tailoring the presentation format and content to the stakeholders.
Why the others are less suitable:

B: Authority to host the presentation is not the key preparation activity.

C: Stakeholder sign-off may occur later; presenting requirements does not always require formal approval beforehand.

D: A scribe may be useful in a meeting, but hiring one is not a core preparation requirement for presenting.

Madala, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by User3698 on: September 22, 2026
Question 44:
Question 44: Answer B — Improve employee training and awareness
The issue is sensitive information being exposed through file-sharing services, often because users:

Share files with the wrong people

Use public links unnecessarily

Fail to classify sensitive data

Upload data to unauthorized services

Misunderstand company sharing policies

Training and awareness can teach employees how to handle sensitive data, verify recipients, configure sharing permissions, and use approved file-sharing platforms.
Why the others are weaker:

A — Step-up authentication: Helps protect administrator accounts, but does not directly address improper file sharing by users.

C — Password complexity: Helps reduce password attacks, not accidental data disclosure.

D — Mobile device management: Secures managed mobile devices, but does not directly control file-sharing behavior across the organization.

In a real environment, technical controls such as DLP, cloud access security controls, and restrictive sharing defaults could be stronger solutions, but they are not options here. Therefore, B is the best available answer.
Guará, Brazil

LPI 201-450: Skills Tested, Job Roles, and Study Tips

The LPIC-2 Exam 201, Part 1 of 2, version 4.5 is designed for Linux professionals who have already achieved the LPIC-1 certification and are looking to validate their advanced system administration skills. This certification exam targets individuals working as Linux system administrators, network administrators, or infrastructure engineers who manage mixed-network environments. Employers hire professionals with this LPI certification because it demonstrates a verified ability to handle complex tasks such as kernel compilation, advanced storage management, and system maintenance. By passing this exam, candidates prove they possess the technical depth required to maintain enterprise-level Linux systems, ensuring stability and performance in critical IT infrastructures.

What the 201-450 Exam Covers

The 201-450 exam evaluates a candidate's proficiency across several critical domains that are essential for senior-level Linux administration. Candidates must demonstrate a solid understanding of Capacity Planning to ensure system resources are utilized efficiently, alongside deep knowledge of the Linux Kernel, which involves configuration, compilation, and troubleshooting. The exam also tests System Startup procedures, requiring administrators to manage boot processes and service initialization effectively. Furthermore, the curriculum covers Filesystem and Devices, Advanced Storage Device Administration, and Networking Configuration, all of which are vital for managing complex data environments and connectivity. Our practice questions are structured to mirror these specific domains, allowing you to test your knowledge against the exact technical requirements set by LPI.

Among these topics, Advanced Storage Device Administration often proves to be the most technically demanding area for many candidates. This section requires a comprehensive understanding of logical volume management, RAID configurations, and complex filesystem structures that go far beyond basic partitioning. To succeed, you must be able to troubleshoot storage-related issues in real-time and understand the implications of different storage architectures on system performance and data integrity. Mastery of this domain is not just about knowing commands; it requires a deep conceptual grasp of how Linux interacts with hardware at the block level.

Are These Real 201-450 Exam Questions?

Our practice questions are sourced and verified by the community, consisting of IT professionals and recent test-takers who have sat for the actual LPI certification exam. Because these contributors have firsthand experience with the testing environment, our questions reflect what appears on the real exam because they are sourced from the community. If you've been searching for 201-450 exam dumps or braindump files, our community-verified practice questions offer something more valuable, each question is verified and explained by IT professionals who recently passed the exam. This approach ensures that you are studying high-quality material that aligns with the current exam objectives rather than relying on outdated or unreliable sources.

Community verification works by allowing users to actively participate in the review process, where they discuss answer choices and provide context based on their own testing experiences. When a question is flagged or debated, experienced members of the community step in to clarify the technical reasoning, ensuring that the information remains accurate and relevant. This collaborative environment helps you understand the "why" behind each answer, which is far more effective than rote memorization. By engaging with these community-verified discussions, you gain insights into the nuances of the exam that you simply cannot find in static study guides.

How to Prepare for the 201-450 Exam

Effective exam preparation for the 201-450 requires a combination of theoretical study and hands-on practice in a real or sandbox Linux environment. You should prioritize building a consistent study schedule that allows you to experiment with kernel compilation, network configuration, and storage management tasks on a live system. Every practice question includes a free AI Tutor explanation that breaks down the reasoning behind the correct answer, so you understand the concept, not just the answer. Relying on official LPI documentation is also crucial, as it provides the definitive source of truth for the commands and configurations you will be tested on during your certification exam.

A common mistake candidates make is attempting to memorize answers rather than understanding the underlying Linux concepts, which often leads to failure when they encounter scenario-based questions. Because the 201-450 exam tests your ability to apply knowledge to specific technical problems, rote memorization will not suffice if the question parameters are slightly altered. Additionally, many candidates struggle with time management during the exam because they spend too long on complex troubleshooting scenarios. To avoid this, practice answering questions under timed conditions to build the speed and confidence necessary to navigate the exam efficiently.

What to Expect on Exam Day

On the day of your LPI certification exam, you should be prepared for a testing environment that focuses on practical application and technical accuracy. The exam typically consists of a mix of question formats, including multiple-choice and fill-in-the-blank, designed to test your knowledge of Linux commands, configuration files, and system administration workflows. You will be allotted a specific amount of time to complete the assessment, and it is administered through authorized testing centers or via secure online proctoring services. While the exact passing score and specific question count can vary, the focus remains consistently on your ability to perform tasks that a senior Linux administrator would encounter in a professional setting.

Who Should Use These 201-450 Practice Questions

These practice questions are intended for Linux administrators who have already earned their LPIC-1 certification and are now ready to advance their careers by achieving the LPIC-2 credential. This exam is ideal for professionals with several years of hands-on experience who want to validate their expertise in managing complex Linux environments. By using our platform for your exam preparation, you are positioning yourself to demonstrate the high level of technical competency that employers look for in senior system administrators. Passing this certification exam is a significant milestone that can open doors to more advanced roles and responsibilities within the IT industry.

To get the most out of these resources, do not simply read the correct answer; instead, engage deeply with the AI Tutor explanation and read the community discussions to understand the logic behind each choice. If you find yourself consistently getting a specific topic wrong, flag that question and revisit it after reviewing the relevant documentation. This iterative process of testing, reviewing, and re-testing is the most effective way to solidify your knowledge. Browse the questions above and use the community discussions and AI Tutor to build real exam confidence.

AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!

LPI 201-450 Exam Prep LPIC-2 Exam 201, Part 1 of 2, version 4.5 (Page 12 )

QUESTION: 21 22

QUESTION: 23

QUESTION: 24

QUESTION: 25

QUESTION: 26

LPI 201-450: Skills Tested, Job Roles, and Study Tips

What the 201-450 Exam Covers

Are These Real 201-450 Exam Questions?

How to Prepare for the 201-450 Exam

What to Expect on Exam Day

Who Should Use These 201-450 Practice Questions

LPI 201-450 Exam Prep
LPIC-2 Exam 201, Part 1 of 2, version 4.5 (Page 12 )