201-450 Exam Discussions & Posts
AI Explanation - verified by User1955
on: June 23, 2026
Question 1:
Here’s how to think about Question 1.
- Goal: Give the user the most time to save work during a power failure. That means put the devices that must stay powered long (the PC, any monitor) on the backup battery, and put non-critical devices on a regular surge protection path.
- A UPS provides battery backup (runtime during outages) and power conditioning.
- A surge protector only protects against surges; it does not provide backup power.
- Do not chain a UPS through another surge protector or power strip if possible; the UPS should be plugged into a proper wall outlet.
- Recommended arrangement to maximize uptime:
- Connect the UPS directly to a wall outlet (dedicated outlet if possible).
- Plug the computer and monitor (the critical devices you want powered during an outage) into the UPS outlets.
- Connect non-critical devices (for example, a printer or other peripherals that don’t need to stay on during an outage) to a surge protector that is plugged into a wall outlet, not into the UPS.
- The UPS powers the essential devices during an outage, giving you time to save work and shut down gracefully.
- The surge protector protects non-critical devices from spikes without drawing from the UPS battery.
If you want, I can map a specific device list to UPS vs surge protector and explain the reasoning for each.
Johannesburg, South Africa
AI Explanation - verified by User4144
on: June 23, 2026
Question 14:
Here’s how to think about Question 14.
- A /30 uses 255.255.255.252. That gives 4 addresses per subnet: network, two usable hosts, and broadcast.
- In any /30 (last octet block), usable hosts are only the two addresses in the middle; the first is the network, the last is the broadcast.
- For the block 10.2.1.0/30 (the only option using a /30 among the choices), the addresses are:
- Network: 10.2.1.0
- Usable: 10.2.1.1 and 10.2.1.2
- Broadcast: 10.2.1.3
Therefore 10.2.1.3 (option A) is the broadcast, not usable.
- Options B and C use /29 (255.255.255.248), not /30, so they don’t meet the requirement of a /30 subnet.
- Option D uses 225.255.255.252 with a 209.165.201.2 address and a 225.x.x.x address is multicast (not a usable unicast interface address). So it’s also invalid for a point-to-point /30.
Conclusion:
- None of the provided options give a valid usable host IP for a /30. The correct pattern would be something like 10.2.1.1/30 or 10.2.1.2/30 (within the 10.2.1.0/30 block). The stated answer (D) is not correct.
Pescara, Italy
AI Explanation - verified by learnai102
on: June 23, 2026
Question 33:
Question 33 asks how to start indexing a local video file using the Azure Video Indexer website. The logic is: you’re starting from a local file, so the first step is to upload that file directly to Video Indexer.
- Correct first step: Upload File1.avi to the Azure Video Indexer website (the option that uploads from your local computer).
- Why not the others:
- Uploading to an Azure Storage queue isn’t part of the Video Indexer workflow for indexing a local file.
- OneDrive can be used as a source, but it’s not the initial/most direct step when you’re at the Video Indexer website from a local file.
- YouTube is not involved in the indexing workflow.
Note on the given answer: the page lists C (OneDrive) as the answer, but based on how Video Indexer typically works, B (upload from the Video Indexer website) is the correct first step when starting from a local file. If you’d like, I can walk through the exact steps in the portal.
Warsaw, Poland
AI Explanation - verified by User3321
on: June 23, 2026
Question 5:
Question 5: CCTV surveillance issues in a data center.
Answer: A
Explanation:
- The main risk is that CCTV recordings are not regularly reviewed. If footage isn’t examined, the control loses its effectiveness for detecting incidents, verifying security events, or supporting investigations.
- Why the others are weaker:
- B (records deleted after one year) is a policy issue, but not reviewing footage is a more fundamental failure to use the control.
- C (not recorded 24x7) reduces coverage, but if reviews are still performed on what is recorded, gaps exist; however, lack of regular review is the broader, more critical risk.
- D (not installed in break rooms) is not typically a core data-center risk.
- Verify there is a written policy specifying review frequency and responsible owner.
- Check for a documented review log and sign-off that footage was checked.
- Assess retention periods and ensure footage is protected from tampering and accessible for investigations.
- Confirm camera coverage includes critical areas (entrances, data halls, server rooms) and that access to storage is restricted.
In short, regular review of CCTV footage is essential to make surveillance an effective control.
Washington, United States
AI Explanation - verified by User3321
on: June 23, 2026
list them out in a more concise manner
- Tabletop exercise: discussion-based; no live systems. Tests: roles, decision-making, communication. Pros: low risk, quick; Cons: may miss real-world gaps.
- Walkthrough: structured review of recovery steps with relevant staff. Tests: completeness/accuracy of procedures, contact lists, escalation paths. Pros: detailed; Cons: still no active systems.
- Functional test (functional exercise): tests specific recovery functions in a controlled environment. Tests: end-to-end of individual functions. Pros: concrete validation; Cons: limited scope, may require a test env.
- Full-scale exercise: live, end-to-end drill with people, processes, and technology. Tests: end-to-end readiness, cross-team coordination. Pros: most realistic; Cons: high cost/complexity.
Approach: start with tabletop, then walkthrough, proceed to functional tests for critical functions, and culminate in a full-scale exercise.
Washington, United States
AI Explanation - verified by User3321
on: June 23, 2026
Question 3:
The correct answer is D. Data integrity.
- Why: When two users modify the same record at the same time, the primary risk is that the data becomes inconsistent or incorrect (lost updates, write conflicts). This directly threatens data integrity.
- Why not the others:
- Entity integrity concerns uniqueness of primary keys, not concurrent edits.
- Referential integrity concerns valid relationships between records, not concurrent modification of a single record.
- The term availability integrity isn’t a standard focus in this context; the issue here is ensuring the data remains accurate and consistent.
- How to mitigate: use transactions with ACID properties, appropriate isolation levels (e.g., serializable or repeatable reads), and locking strategies or optimistic concurrency controls to prevent conflicting updates.
If you’d like, I can walk through a concrete lost-update example.
Washington, United States
AI Explanation - verified by User2138
on: June 23, 2026
Question 9:
Question 9: The correct answer is B — a reservation for the server based on the MAC address.
Why this is the best choice:
- The organization uses DHCP to assign IPs, so you can keep centralized IP management and still have a fixed IP for the file server by creating a DHCP reservation tied to the server’s MAC address. DHCP will always give that server the same IP.
Why the other options are less appropriate:
- A separate scope for the file server using a /32 subnet: Not typical or necessary for a single server; DHCP reservations are the standard way to fix an IP without manual config.
- A static IP address within the DHCP IP range: Risky because another device could obtain that same IP via DHCP, causing IP conflicts. If you use a static IP, put it outside the DHCP pool.
- A SLAAC for the server: SLAAC is an IPv6 auto-configuration method and not applicable to a DHCP-managed IPv4 addressing scenario like this.
Yorktown, United States
AI Explanation - verified by User6244
on: June 23, 2026
Question 27:
- Correct answer: AWS Budgets (B) and Amazon CloudWatch (D)
Why these meet the requirement:
AWS Budgets can create a cost budget with a threshold and send alerts (via SNS) when actual or forecasted costs exceed that threshold.Amazon CloudWatch can monitor billing metrics published by AWS (namespace AWS/Billing, e.g., EstimatedCharges) and trigger alarms when a threshold is crossed, with notifications via SNS.
Why not the others:
- SQS (A) is a messaging service, not for alerting on costs.
- Cost Explorer (C) is for analyzing costs, not real-time alerts.
- Cost and Usage Report (E) is a data feed for analysis, not an alert mechanism.
How to use (high level):
- Budgets: Create a cost budget, set the threshold, and configure an SNS endpoint for notifications.
- CloudWatch: Ensure billing metrics are enabled, create a CloudWatch alarm on
AWS/Billing:EstimatedCharges, set the threshold, and attach an SNS topic for alerts.
New Delhi, India
AI Explanation - verified by User6244
on: June 23, 2026
Question 26:
- Correct answer: IAM credential report (option C).
Why this meets the requirement:
- The credential report gives a snapshot of every IAM user and their credentials, including:
- whether a password is enabled and when it was last changed
- when each access key was last rotated (and their status)
- MFA status, and other credential details
- This makes it ideal for auditing password and access-key rotation for compliance.
How to use it:
- Console:
IAM -> Credential reports -> generate/download.
- CLI: run
aws iam generate-credential-report then aws iam get-credential-report --query 'Content' --output text | base64 -d > credential_report.csv (the content is base64-encoded; you’ll parse the resulting CSV).
What it is not for:
AWS Artifact stores and provides compliance reports and agreements, not rotation data.AWS Audit Manager helps collect evidence for audits but isn’t the primary source for credential rotation history.IAM Access Analyzer analyzes resource-access policies, not credential rotation.
New Delhi, India
AI Explanation - verified by User6244
on: June 23, 2026
Question 25:
Question 25 describes moving from a monolithic on-premises app to a set of microservices. The best match in the AWS Well-Architected Framework is to implement loosely coupled dependencies.
Why D is correct:
- Microservices rely on decoupled, independently deployable components. Loose coupling enables each service to scale, evolve, and fail independently, which is the core goal of breaking a monolith into microservices.
Why the other options are less aligned:
- A (Integrate functional testing as part of AWS deployment): Testing is important, but this doesn’t address the architectural benefit of decoupling services.
- B (Use automation to deploy changes): Automation is vital for modern deployments, but it’s a general practice, not the specific architectural principle highlighted by microservices.
- C (Deploy the application to multiple locations): Multi-location deployment helps availability, but it doesn’t capture the essence of designing for independent services.
Key takeaway: The planned shift to microservices is primarily about creating loosely coupled dependencies to improve scalability, resilience, and maintainability.
New Delhi, India
AI Explanation - verified by User1035
on: June 23, 2026
Question 144:
Answer: D
- Why: In a regulated rollout that must stay flexible, a
product backlog provides a living, prioritized list of work items, including regulatory or compliance changes. It lets the PMO and team adapt priorities as constraints evolve.
- Why not A: A burndown chart shows remaining work over time, not visibility into regulatory constraints.
- Why not B: A burnup chart shows scope vs. progress, but it still focuses on metrics rather than explicitly capturing regulatory constraints.
- Why not C: A kanban board improves flow and accountability, but it doesn’t explicitly facilitate visibility into regulatory constraints.
- How this helps: Represent regulatory requirements and changes as backlog items with clear acceptance criteria, and continuously re-prioritize as regulations evolve, maintaining governance without stalling delivery.
Marupe, Latvia
AI Explanation - verified by User6244
on: June 23, 2026
Question 17:
Question 17: A developer wants to deploy an application quickly on AWS without manually creating the required resources. Which AWS service will meet these requirements?
- Correct answer: AWS Elastic Beanstalk (B)
Why:
- Elastic Beanstalk is a platform-as-a-service that automates provisioning of underlying resources (EC2, load balancer, auto-scaling, etc.) and handles deployment. You upload your code and Beanstalk sets up and manages the environment.
- AWS CodeBuild (C) builds code as part of CI, but doesn’t automatically create and manage the full deployment environment.
- Amazon EC2 (A) requires manual resource setup and configuration.
- AWS Personalize (D) is for ML recommendations and not relevant to deploying generic apps.
Tip: Beanstalk speeds deployment by abstracting away infrastructure provisioning, though for more control or repeatable environments you might use CloudFormation or CDK.
New Delhi, India
AI Explanation - verified by User6244
on: June 23, 2026
Question 16:
Here’s the breakdown for question 16.
- Correct answer: On-Demand Instances (D)
Why:
- The app runs for only 2 months each year, with a strict uptime requirement.
- On-Demand has no long-term commitment and costs only for the hours used, making it the most cost-effective option for short, predictable windows.
- Reserved Instances (long-term 1-year or 3-year commitments) would waste money for just 2 months.
- Spot Instances are cheaper but can be interrupted, which violates the “no downtime” requirement.
- Dedicated Hosts are unnecessary for standard workloads and are more expensive, usually used for licensing/compliance needs.
Tip to meet uptime: even with on-demand, design your app architecture across multiple Availability Zones and use health checks/auto-scaling to tolerate zone failures and minimize downtime.
New Delhi, India
AI Explanation - verified by User8598
on: June 23, 2026
A car insurance quote requires a view for potential customers to enter information to process the request. What are two primary decisions to make before you add fields to the view? (Choose Two) Is field entry required? Are processing actions applied to the field? Does the field require a data source? How do users enter values into the field?
Answer: A and D
Explanation: Before adding fields, decide if field entry is required (does the user must fill it) and how users will enter values (input method like text box, dropdown, etc.). Options about processing actions on the field or the data source are important but not the two core early decisions for designing the view.
Sofia, Bulgaria
AI Explanation - verified by petrakenesey
on: June 23, 2026
Question 68:
The correct answer is C (User container).
- A Distinguished Name (DN) is the full path to an entry in a directory and is made up of Relative Distinguished Names (RDNs). Each RDN is an attribute=value pair, such as:
- CN = Common Name
- OU = Organizational Unit
- O = Organization
- C = Country
- etc., sometimes including L (Locality), ST (State/Province), and DC (Domain Component).
- A "User container" is not a standard DN attribute type. A user’s location in the DN is represented by containers such as OU (and possibly CN for the user object itself), but there is no DN component called "User container."
Example DN: CN=Jane Doe,OU=Engineering,OU=Users,DC=example,DC=com
So the option not a DN component is: User container.
Budapest, Hungary
AI Explanation - verified by petrakenesey
on: June 23, 2026
Question 35:
- Why: In Check Point, a VPN Gateway can participate in multiple VPN communities as long as all gateways involved are managed by the same Security Management Server. This ensures the management database can coordinate policies, encryption domains, and tunnel configurations consistently across all communities. If gateways are managed by different Security Management servers, coordinating multiple communities becomes complex or unsupported.
- A) No — not true; gateways can be in more than one community.
- B) Modifying vpn_route.conf on each gateway is not the standard, centralized way to enable multi-community participation.
- C) The ability isn’t limited by “doesn’t pair with another gateway” but by whether the gateways share the same management server.
Budapest, Hungary
AI Explanation - verified by User9855
on: June 23, 2026
Question 23:
Question 23 asks: Which of the following is NOT a method used by Identity Awareness for acquiring identity?
- Remote Access
- Active Directory Query
- Cloud IdP (Identity Provider)
- RADIUS
Answer: C: Cloud IdP (Identity Provider)
Why:
- Identity Awareness typically acquires identity from on-prem or VPN-related sources such as:
- Active Directory Query (LDAP/AD) to map IPs to users.
- Remote Access sessions, where user identity is captured when VPN clients connect.
- RADIUS events, which provide user identity information from RADIUS-authenticated devices.
- A Cloud IdP is generally not a standard direct identity source for Identity Awareness to map network identities to users. It’s more about cloud SSO/authentication, not feeding Identity Awareness with the mapping data IA uses.
So, Cloud IdP is NOT a method Identity Awareness uses to acquire identity.
Budapest, Hungary
AI Explanation - verified by User4385
on: June 23, 2026
Question 16:
Question 16: An e-learning platform needs to run an application for 2 months each year with no downtime. Which EC2 option is MOST cost-effective?
Answer: On-Demand Instances (D)
Why the other options aren’t as good here:
- Reserved Instances: require a 1-year or 3-year commitment. For only 2 months of use, you’d pay for unused time and still not meet the uptime requirement cost-effectively.
- Dedicated Hosts: mainly for license/enforcement needs and to meet compliance; they’re typically more expensive and unnecessary for just ensuring uptime.
- Spot Instances: can be terminated with little or no notice, so they can’t guarantee no downtime.
On-Demand gives you no long-term commitment and you pay by the hour for the 2-month window. To truly avoid downtime, pair On-Demand with a fault-tolerant design (e.g., multi-AZ deployment and load balancing) so services stay online even if one AZ has issues. If there were a Scheduled Reserved Instances option, that could be even cheaper for a repeating 2-month window, but it isn’t listed among the choices.
Tower Hamlets, United Kingdom
AI Explanation - verified by User6894
on: June 23, 2026
Question 36:
Question 36 asks: You want to be notified if deleted users downloaded many SharePoint documents in the month before their accounts were removed. Which feature should you use?
- Best answer: Insider risk management policy
Why:
- It is designed to detect and alert on insider threats, including data exfiltration via file downloads from cloud apps like SharePoint Online.
- You can scope the policy to specific users (the ones being removed) and monitor data-access events (e.g., large numbers of downloads) within a defined window (e.g., the month before offboarding).
- It generates incidents that your security team can investigate and it integrates with Microsoft 365 Defender.
Why the other options are less suitable:
- File policy in Defender for Cloud Apps can alert on file activity in cloud apps but isn’t as tightly focused on offboarding scenarios and may not provide the same out-of-the-box “leaving employee” workflow as insider risk.
- Access review policy is for certifying or revoking access, not for detecting or alerting on data downloads.
- Alert policy in Defender for Office 365 targets email threats; not relevant to SharePoint document downloads.
What to do (high level):
- In the Defender portal, go to Insider risk management > Policies > New policy.
- Configure a policy for data exfiltration from SharePoint/OneDrive, scoped to the departing users.
- Set a threshold (e.g., downloads above a certain count in 30 days) and enable alerts/incidents for investigation.
Hyderabad, India
AI Explanation - verified by vinodhkumar.j.1986
on: June 23, 2026
Question 57:
Question 57 asks: What order should be used when upgrading a Management High Availability Cluster?
- The answer key shows D (Primary Management, then Secondary Management), but the recommended order is actually C: Standby Management, then Active Management.
Why C is correct:
- Standby (Secondary) is not handling traffic, so upgrading it first minimizes risk and reduces downtime.
- After the Standby is upgraded and re-synced, you upgrade the Active (Primary). This preserves HA continuity and ensures both units run compatible versions.
Mapping:
- Standby Management ˜ Secondary
- Active Management ˜ Primary
So, the safe upgrade sequence is Standby ? Active (C), not Primary ? Secondary (D).
Note: The exam bank you have may list D as the answer, but based on typical Check Point HA upgrade practice, C is the correct approach. If you want, I can walk through the exact upgrade steps for each node.
Erode, India
AI Explanation - verified by User5656
on: June 23, 2026
Question 7:
The correct choice is B: Facilitate communication and team building.
Why this is correct:
- If individual performance is fine but the team isn’t performing well, the issue is typically team dynamics—communication gaps, misaligned expectations, and lack of trust. Improving how the team works together addresses the root cause, not just individual skills.
Key points to address:
- Establish clear communication channels and norms (overlaps for time zones, agreed response times, where decisions are documented).
- Implement team-building activities and cross-functional collaboration to build trust and a shared mental model.
- Create a team charter with shared goals, roles, and ground rules; ensure everyone understands how the team will work together.
- Use structured rituals (regular stand-ups, retrospectives focused on collaboration, cross-team syncs) and suitable collaboration tools.
Why not the other options:
- A (review/reassign team assignments) may disrupt harmony and doesn’t fix underlying communication issues.
- C (negotiate for new team members) addresses headcount, not the teamwork problem.
- D (update the communications management plan) helps, but without active team-building and improved collaboration, the team may still underperform.
In short, to lift overall team performance in a distributed setting, prioritizing communication and team-building activities is the most effective initial action.
Subang Jaya, Malaysia
AI Explanation - verified by chuah.hwa
on: June 23, 2026
Question 80:
- Answer: C — enable limited experiences, such as blocking download of sensitive information.
- Conditional Access session controls are post-sign-in app controls (session-level) that limit what you can do inside a cloud app. They’re implemented via integration with Defender for Cloud Apps (formerly Cloud App Security).
- They enable “limited experiences” in a session, e.g., blocking downloads, restricting copy/paste, or preventing printing.
- This is different from sign-in controls like MFA or device/compliant-device checks, which are evaluated at sign-in, not during the session. So options like enforcing device compliance or prompting MFA are sign-in controls, not session controls.
Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia
AI Explanation - verified by 15akumar
on: June 23, 2026
Question 254:
Question 254 deals with how many Firewall-kernel cores you can use per cluster member when you add a new device.
Key concept:
- In a Check Point cluster, the number of cores used for the
Firewall-kernel on each device is limited by the device with the fewest cores in the cluster. In other words, the cluster uses the minimum core count among all members (the "lowest common denominator").
Apply it to the scenario:
- Current gateway: 2 cores
- New gateway: 4 cores
- Minimum cores among members = 2
- Therefore, each cluster member (including the 4-core device) can use only 2
Firewall-kernel cores.
Conclusion:
- The correct answer is 2 cores per device. The provided answer (4 cores) is incorrect because it ignores the minimum-core rule across the cluster. If both devices had 4 cores, then you could use 4 cores per device.
Melbourne, Australia
AI Explanation - verified by User8554
on: June 22, 2026
Do these questions come for the exam
Short answer: not reliably. These questions come from a community-contributed bank and are not guaranteed to appear on the actual exam. In fact, the page itself notes that a meaningful percentage of the provided answers are WRONG.
What you should do instead:
- Focus on official objectives and Microsoft Learn material for the exam topic.
- Use these questions only as rough practice to check understanding of concepts, not as a predictor of exact exam content.
- If a question contains an image you can’t see here, describe it and I’ll explain the underlying concept.
If you want verified answers for the full question bank, that’s available with the premium/full version. I can also walk through any concept from these questions and map it to the official objectives. Which topic or item would you like to review?
Erode, India
finn_k8s
on: June 19, 2026
Underestimated this exam and had to spend ages grinding through countless exam dumps. Managed to pass only because of the real exam questions added in there.
Lebanon
finn_k8s
on: June 17, 2026
Spent countless hours prepping for this exam and resorted to dumps at the end. The real exam questions were very hard.
Denmark
ServerlessSid
on: June 16, 2026
Passed it after some sleepless nights because teh real exam questions were tougher than expected. The dumps were helpful but the AI Assistant was what got me through this challenging exam.
Switzerland
jakob_vmware
on: June 14, 2026
Finally done with this exam using braindumps and teh AI Assistant. Didn't think I'd make it considering how very hard it was.
UAE
DataCenter_Dan
on: June 13, 2026
Passed it after the real exam questions caught me off guard so I relied heavily on exam dumps. Very hard adn needed every bit of the AI Assistant to pull through.
India
hamid_certguy
on: June 08, 2026
Underestimated this exam at first and had to grind throgh braindumps to make it happen. Real exam questions were very hard without extra prep material.
Philippines
upskill_or_bust
on: June 06, 2026
Passed it after realizing how very hard this exam was and resorting to exam dumps for some guidance. teh real exam questions still threw me off but it worked out in the end.
Kuwait
night_study_guy
on: May 28, 2026
Spent a lot of time with the braindumps for this exam because it's very hard. The AI Assistant made a difference in understanding the real exam questions eventually.
South Africa
LabRatTech
on: May 24, 2026
Underestimated this exm and ended up grinding through countless brain dumps. Those real exam questions were very hard.
Hungary
mateus_aws_br
on: May 22, 2026
That was a very hard exam but the exam dumps helped me get through. The real exam questions were tough enough to need two tries.
Finland
t1_support_guy
on: May 22, 2026
Spent weeks on the exam dumps but it was still a very hard exam. Just cleared the exam because the real exam questions were tricky and stressful.
Nigeria
haruto_devops
on: May 21, 2026
The exam dumps barely touched the surface because this exam caught me off guard with very hard questions. The AI Assistant was helpful but the real exam questions were a different beast.
Poland
TheCertMachine
on: May 10, 2026
Almost didn't think I would make it through this exam but the braindumps and the AI Assistant really helped. Glad to have that over.
Austria
GCPengineer_T
on: May 08, 2026
Spent weeks digging through brain dumps and finally squeaked by this exam but it was very hard and stressful.
France
rachel_ops
on: May 05, 2026
Spent weeks on exm dumps and just managed to pass this very hard exam. The braindumps helped but the stress was real.
India
dhcp_d
on: May 01, 2026
Underestimated this exam and spent days grinding through braindumps. Real exam questions were very hard but the dumps helped me scrape through.
United Kingdom
LinuxPlus_Len
on: April 29, 2026
Three weeks of studying and the brain dumps were still my last resort for this exam. The AI Assistant helped with grasping real exam questions but it was a very hard process.
South Korea
ExamSurvivor_T
on: April 25, 2026
Took two attempts but finally passed this exam using braindumps and the AI Assistant. It was very hard and I'm just relieved it's over.
Saudi Arabia
d3bug_dan
on: April 22, 2026
Passed it using some brain dumps because this exam was very hard. The AI Assistant didn't cover everything.
Malaysia
graveyard_geek
on: April 08, 2026
Spent weeks sifting through braindumps and scraped by this exam. The real exam questions were a lot harder than expected.
Chile
CloudGuy_Mike
on: April 07, 2026
Finally done with this exam on teh second try but it was very hard. Braindumps and the AI Assistant barely got me through it.
Kenya
git_push_g
on: March 31, 2026
Passed it after struggling through a challenging exam with brain dumps and real exam questions. Very hard even with the dumps.
Sweden
n3tw0rk3r
on: March 30, 2026
Passed it after a lot of stress with the help of exam dumps. This exam was very hard and the real exam questions were no joke.
Norway
QuietQuitter_IT
on: March 29, 2026
This exam was very hard and I definitely underestimated it so I had to spend hours with braindumps to finally pass.
Thailand
ssh_hero
on: March 27, 2026
Just cleared this very hard exam using brain dumps and it took its toll on my stress levels. The real exam questions were similar but it still felt like a nightmare.
India
weekend_warrior_w
on: March 26, 2026
Just cleared this challenging exam using brain dumps adn the AI Assistant. Spent many hours stressed and relieved to barely pass.
Belgium