Salesforce CRT-101 Exam Prep
Certification Preparation for Administrator (Page 75 )

• Service Cloud focuses on customer service and support.
• Knowledge: Used for a knowledge base of articles to assist agents and customers.
• Entitlements: Define service levels/SLA for handling cases.

• Campaigns and Opportunities/Quotes are typically part of Sales Cloud (marketing and sales functionalities, respectively).

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact through controls, such as patching or employee training.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity or condition that creates the risk.
• Transfer: Shifting the consequences—usually financial—to another party, such as an insurer.

• Remote and global access: Employees can authenticate from anywhere, not just a specific location.
• Seamless login: The device can authenticate in the background, reducing repeated password or MFA prompts.
• Minimal equipment: It uses devices employees already have, rather than requiring separate hardware.

• Geotagging: Identifies location but is not a complete authentication method and can be spoofed.
• Smart cards: Can provide strong authentication, but require cards and often readers, adding equipment and user steps.
• Time-based logins: Restrict access by time but do not verify the user or device adequately.

1. Start with the Customer table.
2. Use Merge Queries and select the Address table.
3. Match Customer[Address ID] to Address[Address ID].
4. Use a Left Outer join so every customer is retained.
5. Expand only City, State/Region, and Country.

• Append adds rows vertically; it is for stacking similarly structured tables.
• Group By summarizes rows and does not retrieve address columns.
• Transpose swaps rows and columns and is unrelated to table relationships.

apex 
for (Account updatedAccount : Trigger.new) { 
    AccountTriggerHelper.notinyxternalSystem(updatedAccount.Id); 
}

• Too many callouts: The callout occurs asynchronously in the future method, and each future transaction can perform its permitted callouts.
• Too many SOQL queries: The SOQL query is inside the future execution, not repeatedly in the trigger transaction.
• Callout from triggers not supported: Direct callouts from triggers are prohibited, but the trigger delegates the callout to asynchronous Apex, which is the correct pattern.

• Documented and formally requested
• Analyzed for security, cost, and operational impact
• Reviewed and approved by the appropriate personnel
• Tested before implementation
• Tracked and reversible if problems occur

• Risk management process: Identifies and evaluates risk, but does not directly authorize design changes.
• Product design process: Applies primarily while creating or developing the product.
• Design review process: May have identified the issues, but the next step for changing an already released design is controlled change management.

• Identifying the communication strategy: Usually part of a business continuity or incident response plan.
• Evaluating the risk management plan: Part of risk assessment and risk management activities.
• Establishing backup and recovery procedures: Usually part of disaster recovery planning.
• Developing the incident response plan: Part of incident response planning.

• The requirement is to obtain an assessment of the Azure environment’s design.
• The proposed solution is the Premier support plan.
• Premier can provide this type of guidance, but it is a higher-tier, more expensive option.
• The question specifically says to keep costs to a minimum. A lower tier—typically Professional Direct in the support-plan model used by this question—provides architectural/design guidance.

• Remote and global work: Access is based on the approved device, not a specific office or geographic location.
• Seamless login: Users may not need to repeatedly enter credentials on a recognized device.
• Limited equipment: It uses devices employees already have rather than requiring separate hardware.

• Geotagging: Restricts access based on location and may prevent legitimate remote work.
• Smart cards: Require issuing and managing additional physical equipment.
• Time-based logins: Limit access by time and do not provide a seamless authentication experience.

• SQL injection
• Cross-site scripting (XSS)
• Malicious file uploads
• Common web-application exploits

• Layer 4 firewall: Filters primarily by IP addresses, ports, and transport protocols; it lacks detailed web-application inspection.
• NGFW: Provides advanced network filtering and may include application awareness, but a WAF is more specialized for protecting web applications.
• UTM: Combines several security functions in one device, but it is not specifically focused on web-application attacks.

• Field name and label
• Data type
• Reference table
• Default value
• Whether the field is mandatory or read-only
• Field attributes and configuration

• A: Labels and translations are handled through documentation and translation-related records.
• C: Table relationships may be represented through reference fields, but this is not the primary description of the Dictionary.
• D: Spell-checking language data is unrelated to the System Dictionary.

• A. Tuning system software: This is a corrective action, not an analysis method. Tuning should be based on measured performance data.
• B. User dissatisfaction reports: Useful as an indicator, but subjective and insufficient for diagnosing the cause.
• D. Off-peak utilization and response time: This may hide problems occurring during peak periods. Performance analysis should cover representative or peak workloads.

• A — Can help keep costs down and improve quality: The provider may have specialist expertise, efficient systems and economies of scale.
• B — There is a known fee if agreed in advance: A fixed or agreed fee can make costs more predictable and support budgeting.
• C — Allows management to focus on core operations and issues: Senior managers spend less time supervising routine finance processes and more time on strategic matters.

• Increased control: Control may decrease because the activity is performed externally.
• Increased independence: The organisation becomes dependent on the supplier.
• Increased understanding of the outsourcing business: The internal organisation usually has greater business knowledge; the provider may initially lack it.
• Increased confidentiality: Sharing financial information externally may create confidentiality risks.
• Internal expertise improved: Outsourcing can reduce opportunities to develop internal finance skills.

• Gaia Portal: Controlled by Gaia administration settings, not SmartConsole Trusted Clients.
• SSH: Controlled by Gaia or operating-system SSH access settings.
• Security Gateway(s): SmartConsole connects to the Security Management Server, not directly to gateways for this purpose.

• Modelo de embeddings de texto: trabalha principalmente com texto, não sendo adequado para imagens.
• Modelo generativo multimodal: pode interpretar ou gerar conteúdo de vários tipos, mas não é a opção específica para busca por similaridade.
• Modelo de geração de imagens: cria imagens a partir de entradas, não realiza busca multimodal.

• Crowd-sourced evaluation: Requires recruiting and managing many evaluators.
• Human-worker evaluation: Provides human judgment but requires coordination, labeling instructions, and quality control.
• RLHF: Is a training and alignment process, not simply a low-overhead model comparison method.
• Automatic model evaluation: Quickly evaluates outputs using predefined toxicity or quality metrics with minimal manual effort.

• A — If there is no demand, there should be no production.

• B — Not all sales equal profit.

• C — Stocking up on inventory is bad for business.

• D — All costs, except materials, are considered fixed.

• E — Departments should operate at full capacity regardless of bottlenecks.

• D — Create sibling resource pools for the Production VMs and Test VMs.

• B — Configure a memory reservation on the Production resource pool.

• Shares only determine relative priority when resources are scarce; they do not guarantee memory.
• A parent resource pool alone does not provide a guarantee.
• A child pool for Test VMs does not reserve memory for Production.

• 25 — Traditional SMTP server-to-server delivery; often restricted for client submission and not inherently encrypted.
• 110 — POP3 for retrieving email; unencrypted by default.
• 143 — IMAP for retrieving and synchronizing email; unencrypted by default.
• 587 — Authenticated SMTP submission, commonly secured with STARTTLS.

• Planning and designing products and services
• Developing and delivering them
• Managing risks, suppliers, and resources
• Measuring performance
• Continually improving value delivery

• Value stream steps describe activities used to create and deliver value; they do not themselves provide the broader capabilities.
• Vision and operating model provide direction and structure, but they are not the practical management capabilities that enable the work.
• Value chain is the operating model showing how activities combine to create value; it is enabled by practices and resources.

• The selling division receives a credit based on a favourable transfer price, often market price or full cost plus a profit margin.
• The receiving division is charged a lower amount, such as marginal cost or another agreed price.
• The difference is accounted for centrally by head office or a corporate adjustment.

• The servers run different operating systems: Windows, Linux, and Unix.
• Containers generally share the host operating system’s kernel, so they cannot normally run workloads requiring unrelated kernels, such as Windows and Linux, on the same Linux host.
• A hypervisor can create separate virtual machines, allowing each VM to run its own guest OS.
• A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of a host operating system and can support multiple guest operating systems.

• Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates define the virtual machines and related Azure resources declaratively. You can deploy the same template repeatedly, ensuring consistent VM sizes, networking, storage, extensions, and other infrastructure settings.

• PowerShell DSC extension applies and maintains the required Windows configuration inside each VM. DSC is state-based: if a setting changes or becomes incorrect, DSC can bring it back to the desired configuration.

• Azure Pipelines deployment groups organize deployment targets, but they do not primarily enforce ongoing VM configuration.
• Custom Script Extension runs setup scripts, but it is generally less maintainable and does not continuously enforce configuration like DSC.
• Pipeline stage templates reuse pipeline workflow definitions; they do not configure the VMs themselves.

• CSIRT: A team that responds to and manages security incidents.
• CVSS: A scoring system for rating the severity of vulnerabilities.
• SOAR: A technology platform for automating and coordinating security operations and incident response.

• A — Correct: Identify the data required by Salesforce, its dependencies, and how it should be validated. Verification scripts help confirm record counts, relationships, field mappings, and data integrity after migration.
• D — Correct: Use a full sandbox and perform trial migrations using realistic—or appropriately masked—legacy data. This exposes transformation, volume, dependency, and integration issues before production cutover.
• B — Less appropriate: Phased user migration and parallel operation primarily address user adoption and rollout risk, not the technical risks of data migration.
• C — Less appropriate: Although sandbox testing and integration testing are valuable, the option emphasizes test-data generation rather than validating the migration with representative legacy data. “A full sandbox for all systems” may also be impractical.

• Ease of exploitation
• Required privileges
• User interaction
• Impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability

• CVE: Identifies and names a specific publicly known vulnerability; it does not measure severity.
• OSINT: Refers to intelligence gathered from publicly available sources.
• SOAR: Automates and coordinates security operations, such as alert response and playbooks.

• If the hashes match, the software has likely not changed.
• If they differ, the software was modified or corrupted.

• Encryption: Protects confidentiality by making data unreadable; it does not primarily verify that software was unchanged.
• Baselines: Establish expected configurations or states, but hashing is the specific method for checking file integrity.
• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens and is unrelated to software integrity.

• Issuer: Identifies the party issuing a SAML message—usually the identity provider in the assertion. It is not the Salesforce-specific identifier the architect should provide for differentiating Salesforce.
• Identity Provider Login URL: The endpoint where users are sent to authenticate.
• SAML identity location: Determines where the user identity is found in the SAML assertion, such as the subject or an attribute.

• The legacy system creates a signed JWT assertion.
• Salesforce validates the assertion using a certificate configured on a Connected App.
• Salesforce issues an access token for the integration user.
• No refresh token is required; the system can request a new access token when needed.

• Web Server Flow: normally uses a client secret and authorization/refresh tokens.
• Username-Password Flow: requires storing Salesforce credentials and is discouraged for integrations where stronger options are available.
• User Agent Flow: intended for user-interactive applications, not unattended server-to-server processing.

• B — Reviewing the strategy: Usually performed by a security steering committee or other governance body.
• C — Communicating the strategy: The security manager may help communicate it, but communication is not the primary governance responsibility tested here.
• D — Approving the strategy: Approval belongs to executive management or the appropriate governing authority, not the person who develops it.

• The user starts in the corporate portal.
• The portal launches the Salesforce resource.
• The IdP sends the SAML response to Salesforce.

• Connected App + OAuth is for OAuth authorization and API/app access, not this SAML-based seamless login scenario.
• SP-initiated SSO would begin when the user first requests the Salesforce resource and Salesforce redirects them to the IdP. That is not the described starting point.

• A: Daily involvement is unnecessary and may not solve the availability problem.
• C: Clarifying all requirements at the start conflicts with agile’s iterative refinement.
• D: Simply reviewing based on availability leaves the problem unresolved and allows rework to continue.

text 
ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global 
ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global 
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 
ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20

• The route in Customer1 VRF provides a path back to the Customer2 subnet, 172.16.1.0/24.
• The route in Customer2 VRF provides a path to the FTP server, 192.168.1.200.
• The keyword global tells the router to resolve the next hop using the global routing table, enabling controlled route leaking between the VRF and global table.
• The global routes identify the VLAN interfaces used to reach each customer network.

1. Convert text and images into numerical embeddings.
2. Store or compare those embeddings.
3. Retrieve the most semantically similar items.

• Embedding model: Best for similarity search and retrieval.
• Generation model: Best for producing new text or other content from multimodal input.

• Server provisioning
• Operating systems and runtime infrastructure
• Scaling
• Much of the maintenance and patching

• Thin clients reduce endpoint hardware requirements but do not specifically streamline code deployment.
• Private cloud provides dedicated cloud infrastructure but usually requires more management and expense.
• Virtual machines improve resource utilization, but administrators still manage the VMs, operating systems, and deployments.

Correct choices

• DB1: Azure Data Box Heavy
• Virtual machines: Azure Migrate

Why

• Replication with minimal downtime
• A test migration
• Final cutover after validation

• IRR assumes that interim cash flows can be reinvested at the project’s own IRR. This may be unrealistic, especially when the IRR is very high.
• MIRR assumes reinvestment at a specified rate, usually the company’s cost of capital or another realistic reinvestment rate.

• B: MIRR does not specifically favour projects with long payback periods.
• C: MIRR and IRR can rank competing projects differently.
• D: MIRR is not always higher than IRR; it may be higher or lower depending on the cash flows and reinvestment rate.

• SAML: Enables federated authentication and single sign-on between the IdP and SaaS providers.
• OAuth tokens: Allow delegated application access; OAuth is not primarily the first step for employee SSO.
• Password vaulting: Stores or autofills multiple passwords but does not eliminate the separate credentials or provide true federation.

• A password cracker would normally be identified by behavior such as loading password hashes or attempting dictionary/brute-force attacks.
• The question describes a routine audit, not password recovery.
• Simply encountering a protected file during an audit is characteristic of a misconfigured or insufficiently privileged FIM.

• Conserve public IPv4 addresses: IPv4 addresses are limited, so many internal devices share a smaller number of public addresses through NAT.
• Reduce direct exposure: Private addresses are not directly routable from the public Internet, which helps reduce unsolicited access to internal devices.

• Disable default accounts: Default or unused accounts may have predictable names or credentials and can be abused by attackers. They should be disabled, removed, or secured with strong credentials where necessary.
• Remove unnecessary services: Every running service can contain vulnerabilities or provide an entry point. Removing services the server does not need reduces exposure.

• Add the server to the asset inventory: Important for asset management, but it does not directly harden the system.
• Document default passwords: Default passwords should be changed or disabled—not recorded for continued use.
• Send logs to the SIEM: Supports monitoring and detection, rather than directly reducing the attack surface.
• Join the corporate domain: A deployment/configuration decision, not inherently a hardening measure.

• The audience and stakeholders
• The complexity and type of requirements
• The communication method and level of detail needed
• Whether to use diagrams, models, documents, demonstrations, or slides

• B: Authority to host the presentation is not the key preparation activity.
• C: Stakeholder sign-off may occur later; presenting requirements does not always require formal approval beforehand.
• D: A scribe may be useful in a meeting, but hiring one is not a core preparation requirement for presenting.

• Microsoft Teams: Connects to Teams-related data, but it isn’t the primary connector for the Power Apps data tables.
• Personal Analytics: Provides personal productivity insights, not application data.
• SQL Server database: Only applies if the app explicitly uses SQL Server as its data source.
• Dataflows: Used for preparing and centralizing data, not as the normal direct connection to a Power Apps app.

• A: Describes a broad purpose and direction, but is not the specific CIMA definition.
• C: “Scoping out” activities is too vague and incomplete.
• D: Combines long-term goals, strategies and policies, but describes a wider strategic-planning statement rather than the definition of strategy itself.

• Azure creates a corresponding service principal in Microsoft Entra ID.
• The identity’s lifecycle is tied to the Azure resource.
• If the resource is deleted, Azure automatically deletes the identity.
• Only the associated resource can use that identity to request tokens.
• You can grant the identity permissions to access services such as Key Vault or Storage without storing credentials in code.

• T?o m?t Systems Manager Automation runbook d? ch?y l?nh kh?i d?ng l?i ?ng d?ng trên các EC2 instance.
• T?o m?t Amazon EventBridge rule ph?n ?ng khi CloudWatch alarm chuy?n sang tr?ng thái ALARM.
• Ð?t Automation runbook làm target c?a EventBridge rule.

1. Log c?a ?ng d?ng du?c ghi vào CloudWatch Logs.
2. CloudWatch alarm phát hi?n nhi?u l?i liên quan d?n vi?c restart.
3. Alarm chuy?n sang tr?ng thái ALARM.
4. EventBridge nh?n s? ki?n thay d?i tr?ng thái này.
5. EventBridge g?i Systems Manager Automation runbook.
6. Runbook restart ?ng d?ng trên các EC2 instance, không restart c? instance.

• A: SNS không tr?c ti?p g?i Systems Manager Automation runbook nhu m?t target native.
• B: Lambda có th? th?c hi?n vi?c restart, nhung ph?i t? x? lý vi?c xác d?nh instance và ch?y l?nh t? xa.
• C: Lambda ch? làm trung gian d? g?i runbook, không c?n thi?t vì EventBridge có th? g?i runbook tr?c ti?p.

• Red team: Simulates attackers; exploits weaknesses to test security.
• Blue team: Defends systems; monitors, detects, and responds to attacks.
• Purple team: Combines red- and blue-team efforts to improve detection and defense.
• White team: Oversees or manages the test, defining rules, scope, and authorization.

• A static IP gives the surveillance system a predictable local address, so users can reliably reach it on the LAN.
• However, a static IP does not block internet-based login attempts. If the router exposes the device through port forwarding, attackers could still reach it.
• Port mapping normally exposes an internal service externally, so A is a poor choice as written.
• Subnetting alone also does not block traffic; it would require routing/firewall rules.

• A: Configure security groups — Customers define inbound and outbound rules for resources such as Amazon EC2 instances.
• B: Classify company assets — Customers decide how their data and assets should be classified and protected.

• C: Amazon S3 is a regional service; customers select a Region, not individual Availability Zones for buckets.
• D: AWS manages the infrastructure and patching for Amazon DynamoDB.
• E: AWS manages the infrastructure used by AWS Lambda; customers do not select EC2 instances for Lambda functions.