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Free Test Prep NCLEX-PN Exam Questions (page: 37)

Page 37 of 254
PDF with 1015 Questions

Periwound maceration occurs when ______________.

  1. The skin around the wound softens and is damaged.
  2. Selecting a dressing individualized to the type of wound.
  3. Negative-pressure to “air out” the wound is used.
  4. The skin around the wound dries out and hardens.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Periwound maceration, also classified as moisture associated skin damage, is the softening of the skin and damaging of connective fibers which leads to the wound drying out and hardening.
Dressing selection can help prevent this complication, and negative pressure may reduce it by reducing edema.



Which patient is at greatest risk for cholelithiasis and choledocholithiasis?

  1. A 70 year old male patient who has liver disease.
  2. A 70 year old female patient who has liver disease.
  3. A 50 year old male patient who is Asian.
  4. A 50 year old female patient who is Asian.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The 70 year old female patient who has liver disease is at the greatest risk because the female gender, advancing age and the liver disease are known risk factors for cholelithiasis and choledocholithiasis.
Other risk factors include obesity, oral contraceptive use, diseases and disorders of the ileum, hypercholesterolemia and races like the Hispanic, Native American and Caucasian races.



Which statement about Meniere’s disease is accurate and true?

  1. Meniere’s disease most commonly occurs among members of the elderly population.
  2. Meniere’s disease is insidious and it always affects both ears.
  3. Meniere’s disease occurs with an impairment of the second cranial nerve.
  4. Antiemetic drugs are used for the treatment of patients affected with Meniere’s disease.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Antiemetic drugs as well as other drugs to treat the vertigo, like Antivert, as well as diuretics are used for the treatment of patients affected with Meniere’s disease.
Meniere’s disease typically affects only one ear; it is not the result of second cranial nerve damage. Lastly, people in their 40s and 50s are at greater risk for Meniere’s disease and not the elderly.



Rh negative maternal blood indicates ______________.

  1. an incompatibility in the blood between the mother and fetus
  2. that antibodies in the mother’s blood are attacking her baby’s blood
  3. the mother will require a blood transfusion at the time of delivery
  4. the mother does not have a specific marker on her red blood cells

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The mother’s red blood cells lacking a specific marker indicate that she is Rh negative. However, incompatibility only occurs if the baby is Rh positive and the mother is Rh negative.
This is typically not a problem with a first pregnancy, but in a subsequent pregnancy, the incompatibility can cause the antibodies created during the first pregnancy to attack the new fetus’ red blood cells.
A blood transfusion would have no effect on this problem.



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