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National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-PN) Questions 441–445 (page: 90)

Updated On: 9-Feb-2026

When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that ______________.

  1. Pregnancy tests might be unreliable while taking the drug.
  2. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
  3. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
  4. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Category X drugs have many practice limitations when prescribed and dispensed to women. For example, the prescription is valid for only seven days, and if not filled, it expires.
The FDA provides a pregnancy prevention program for clients taking Isotretinoin (Accutane). Prior to prescribing a Category X drug, a pregnancy test should be performed.



The nurse seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication.

Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?

  1. urinalysis
  2. creatinine and blood urea nitrogen
  3. chemistry of electrolytes
  4. creatinine clearance

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Due to decreases in lean body mass, blood creatinine is not as good an indicator of the elderly client’s renal function as creatinine clearance.
Urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen reflect hydration status and other clues to health but are not specific for renal function.
The electrolytes might be deranged in renal failure but are not a direct correlation to the kidneys’ capability to eliminate waste.
Therefore, the best lab for renal function in the elderly is thought to be creatinine clearance, which is a widely used test for glomerular filtration rate.



The nurse sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

  1. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinivir)
  2. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  3. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
  4. two protease inhibitors

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Unless there is drug resistance, the initial prophylaxis based on CDC recommendations is 2 NNRTIs.



A client is taking the fluoroquinolone Ciprofloxin for acute prostatitis. After a few doses of the agent, he develops severe muscle pain.

The most likely cause of the adverse reaction is ______________.

  1. electrolyte imbalance
  2. impending tendon rupture
  3. calcium deposits
  4. antibiotic-associated colitis

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

An untoward, adverse drug reaction associated with the quinolones is tendon rupture.
Electrolyte imbalance has not been associated with the group, and antibiotic-associated colitis is most common in augmentin and penicillin groups.



Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the agent of choice for which of the following infections?

  1. HIV
  2. AIDS
  3. candida
  4. herpes

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Acyclovir is an antiviral effective in shortening the duration of infection in herpes.
It is used in HIV and AIDS to treat opportunistic, viral infections but is not a primary AIDS drug. Candida is a fungus and is responsive to antifungal medication.



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