Cisco 350-601 Exam Prep
Implementing and Operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (DCCOR) (Page 10 )

• The ERSPAN source is the device or interface whose traffic is being copied.
• The ERSPAN destination is the device receiving the encapsulated copy and forwarding it to the traffic analyzer.
• The local monitor session number is locally significant. Therefore, the source and destination do not need matching session IDs such as 47 or 48.
• The erspan-id identifies the ERSPAN stream and must correspond between the source and destination configuration.

• B — Both inner and outer classes can be declared as with sharing.

• C — Inner classes do not inherit sharing settings from the container class.

apex 
public with sharing class OuterClass { 
    public with sharing class InnerClass { 
        // Explicitly uses sharing rules 
    } 
}

1. Yes — One account can manage multiple subscriptions

1. No — You cannot merge two subscriptions into one

1. Yes — A resource belongs to only one subscription

• Required response time
• Resolution time
• Availability or uptime
• Support hours
• Performance targets
• Consequences if targets are missed

• SOW (Statement of Work): Defines the project’s scope, tasks, deliverables, and schedule.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Describes the responsibilities and commitments between parties.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Documents a general mutual understanding or intent, often before a formal agreement.

• \Pipeline1
• \Folder1\Lakehouse1

• Pipeline1 remains at the workspace root in Workspace1, so it is deployed to the root of Workspace2.
• Lakehouse1 was moved into Folder1, so its full path is preserved as \Folder1\Lakehouse1.
• Fabric deployment pipelines preserve folder paths because an item’s full path is treated as part of its name.

• When the MVP will be defined — the MVP should already be understood sufficiently when assessing the business case.
• What the MVP is — useful information, but not the key requirement tested here.
• That the MVP is the same as project viability — incorrect. The MVP helps test viability; it is not identical to viability itself.

• up ? down ? up
• Often happens rapidly or intermittently

• Faulty or loose cable or connector
• Failing transceiver, NIC, or switch port
• Speed/duplex or auto-negotiation problems
• Power or hardware instability
• Layer 1 interference

• Nothing plugged in: the port is simply down
• Latency: does not directly trigger err-disable
• shutdown: administratively disables the port, but that is not the same as an automatically detected err-disabled condition

• nmap - 10.11.1.130 — a network scanning command; mitigated with controls such as firewalls, monitoring, or access restrictions.
• “Click this link to get your free gift card.” — a phishing or social-engineering message; addressed through user awareness, email filtering, and authentication controls.
• “Your connection is not private.” — indicates a certificate or TLS validation problem; addressed by correcting the certificate or secure-connection configuration.

• Information sources: Collect security-related data, such as network packets, system logs, audit records, or application events.
• Analysis: Examines the collected data to identify suspicious activity, attacks, or policy violations.
• Response: Takes or recommends action, such as generating alerts, logging the event, or supporting a protective response.

1. Append Table1 and Table2 as a new query

1. Select the product column in the appended query.

1. Choose Remove Rows > Remove Duplicates

1. Clear principles and boundaries — Employees have freedom, but decisions must remain within clear organizational values, policies and limits.
2. High degree of freedom — Managers are trusted to make decisions rather than seeking continual approval from senior management.
3. Frontline customer responsibility — Customer-facing managers should be empowered to manage customer relationships and respond quickly to needs.
4. Transparent and ethical information — Information should be openly available and used honestly, supporting trust and informed decision-making.

• state preserves the client’s original context, such as the specific idea URL the user requested.
• The portal sends that value in the OAuth authorization request.
• Salesforce returns it after authorization, allowing the portal to redirect the user to the original idea rather than the Ideas home page.

• VPC: A logically isolated virtual network within a cloud provider; it describes network design, not the user-access model.
• NFV: Runs network services as software instead of on dedicated hardware.
• SaaS: Delivers software over the internet. Although the application may be delivered as SaaS, the question emphasizes its availability to multiple user groups, which points to multitenancy.

• Reconnaissance: Gathering information about the target.
• Weaponization: Creating or combining a malicious payload with a delivery method.
• Delivery: Sending the payload, such as through phishing.
• Exploitation: Triggering a vulnerability or weakness to gain execution or access.

• Data Cloud combines data from multiple systems.
• It resolves and organizes that data into a unified customer view.
• That unified view enables downstream actions such as personalized campaigns, segmentation, analytics, and activation.

• A = core platform value
• D = a resulting business use case or benefit

• Active-active routers: Provide redundant Internet connections/devices. Both can operate, so traffic can fail over or be load-balanced.
• Active-active firewalls: Avoid a single firewall becoming a failure point while maintaining security inspection.
• Load balancers: Distribute requests across multiple web servers. If one server fails, traffic can go to the other.
• Redundant power supplies: A server with separate power supplies should connect to independent power sources or circuits.
• UPS A and UPS B: Provide backup power and redundancy. Ideally, each power supply is connected to a different UPS.
• SONET ring: A ring topology provides alternate paths if a fiber link or segment fails.

• Company documents
• Databases
• Knowledge bases
• Current web or business data

• A: Describes diversity and inclusive design, not grounding.
• B: Describes explainability or model interpretability.
• D: Describes documenting a model’s capabilities and limitations.

• Internal audit: Reviews the organization’s own controls and processes.
• Penetration testing: Actively tests systems for exploitable vulnerabilities.
• Attestation: A SOC 2 report is an attestation product issued by an independent auditor, but the analyst is not performing the attestation. They are reviewing it as part of vendor evaluation.

• What information each stakeholder needs
• When and how often it should be communicated
• Which format or channel should be used
• Who is responsible for communicating it

• A: The team should not decide stakeholder communications without first checking the established plan and CEO’s needs.
• B: An executive summary may be appropriate, but choosing a solution before reviewing the plan is premature.
• D: The stakeholder engagement plan addresses how to engage stakeholders, but this is primarily a communication planning issue.

• C — Some risks cannot be eliminated.

• D — Accepting residual risk does not imply recklessness.

• E — Most companies in this industry will say something similar.

• Microsoft Foundry is an enterprise platform for developers, data scientists, and IT teams.
• It supports the full AI application lifecycle: selecting models, connecting enterprise data, developing, evaluating, deploying, monitoring, and scaling solutions.
• It can include visual tools and low-code experiences, but it is not primarily designed to enable business users to build complete generative AI solutions independently.

• B: You still need to select and configure an appropriate model.
• C: Business users may participate through visual tools, but they are not the primary target audience.
• D: Foundry includes low-code tools, but it is not fundamentally a low-code-only platform.

• Data source: Folder
• Transformation: Remove the Content column (or keep only the file-metadata columns)

Why

• File name
• Extension
• Date modified
• Folder path
• Content — the binary contents of the file

• File1 contains the evaluation configuration—for example, evaluators, test data, thresholds, or evaluation parameters.
• The GitHub Actions workflow must reference that file through the evaluation-config input so the action knows which evaluation to run.
• project-endpoint identifies the Microsoft Foundry project, but it does not identify the evaluation definition. It is also typically required, but it does not answer the specific requirement about using File1.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS mainly detects suspicious network traffic. It is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and can improve availability, but does not specifically detect malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect web requests, but malware scanning of PDF files is not its primary function.

spl 
error AND host=WWW3 
status=404 OR status=500 
NOT source=access.log

• Quotation marks are used for exact phrases or values containing spaces.
• Parentheses group parts of a Boolean expression, but they are not required for every Boolean search.

• The vulnerability scan identifies a vulnerability.
• The administrator verifies that the vulnerability is not present.
• Therefore, the scan produced a false positive.

• True positive: A vulnerability is reported and genuinely exists.
• False negative: A vulnerability exists, but the scan fails to detect it.
• True negative: No vulnerability exists, and the scan correctly reports no issue.

• C — Before update
• D — Before insert

apex 
trigger AccountTrigger on Account (before insert, before update) { 
    for (Account acct : Trigger.new) { 
        acct.Description = 'Updated automatically'; 
    } 
}

• In after insert and after update, Trigger.new records are read-only.
• Use after triggers when you need the record’s final database Id or want to create/update related records.
• Attempting to change a field directly in an after trigger causes a read-only error.

• Incident and problem management
• Change management
• Service-level management
• Configuration management
• Continual improvement

• Kanban: A workflow and task-visualization method; useful within service teams but not a complete service-management framework.
• Lean Six Sigma: Focuses on reducing waste and process variation; broader process-improvement methodology.
• ITSM: The overall discipline of managing IT services, not a specific framework or process model.

1. Discovery tries the SSH probe first.
2. SSH fails.
3. Discovery tries SNMP, which succeeds.
4. Discovery records SNMP as the preferred service for that IP.
5. Future discoveries try SNMP first.

• Classification identifies the type of device, such as a server, router, or printer.
• Credential affinity remembers which credentials work for a device.
• MID Server affinity associates a device or network with a particular MID Server.
• IP service affinity specifically controls the preferred discovery protocol or service.

• Crash cart: Provides local physical access, not remote access.
• Jump box: A secured intermediary used to reach devices over the normal network; it may be inaccessible if the appliance has not booted.
• Secure Shell (SSH): Requires the device’s operating system and network services to be running properly.

• Deterrent control: The signs warning that people may be filmed can discourage unauthorized or malicious activity. They do not directly stop the action; they influence behavior.
• Detective control: CCTV records or monitors activity so security personnel can identify events or investigate them afterward.

• Preventive: Stops an incident from occurring, such as access control.
• Corrective: Restores systems after an incident.
• Directive: Instructs people to behave in a certain way, such as a security policy.
• Compensating: An alternative control used when the preferred control is not feasible.

• A user connects with their Google account.
• Google associates the user’s SSH key with that identity.
• IAM roles determine whether they can log in.
• Access can be tied to a specific employee for auditing.
• Removing the IAM role removes their login access.

• compute.osLogin: regular OS login access
• compute.osAdminLogin: OS login with administrative privileges, typically including sudo

text 
enable-oslogin=TRUE

• A. Adjust resolution: Incorrect because an incompatible resolution usually causes no display, distortion, or an unsupported-mode message—not intermittent flickering.
• B. Swap the HDMI cable: Correct. Replacing the common, easily tested component is the appropriate troubleshooting step.
• C. Replace the projector: Incorrect because the issue also occurs with a monitor.
• D. Configure refresh rate: A mismatched refresh rate can cause visual problems, but the repeated flicker across displays points more strongly to the cable.

1. Horizontal scaling — Yes

1. Vertical scaling — Yes

1. Scaling can manage costs — Yes

• Horizontal = more or fewer instances
• Vertical = larger or smaller instances

• Correct exam answer: A — HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
• The relevant location is associated with HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SAM.
• The SAM does not store passwords in plain text; it stores password hashes.

• HKEY_CURRENT_USER contains settings for the currently logged-in user, not the account-password database.
• HKEY_USERS contains user profiles and settings loaded for users.
• HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGURATION contains hardware/profile configuration information.

• The CSV contains the external users’ email addresses.
• The bulk invitation feature supports inviting many guest users in one operation.
• Each invited user becomes a guest account in contoso.com.

• Review the risk register.
• Check the documented risk response strategy, such as using a backup resource, reallocating work, or adjusting sequencing.
• Implement the planned response promptly.

• B: Moving the task may affect the critical path and should not be done without first evaluating the planned response and impacts.
• C: Excluding a required task would change scope and business requirements without proper analysis or approval.
• D: Updating lessons learned and the risk log may be appropriate later, but it does not address the immediate problem. First, execute the response.

• Deficiency found before patient use: usually does not require an adverse-event report because no patient exposure occurred.
• Event caused solely by the patient’s condition: may not be reportable if the device did not contribute.
• Malfunction protection operated correctly: generally exempt when the device’s safety mechanism worked as intended and prevented harm.

• Normal or expected input
• Boundary values
• Invalid input
• Potential error conditions

• A is incorrect: it creates test code, not detailed test documentation.
• C is incorrect: it does not primarily integrate external testing frameworks.
• D is incorrect: executing tests requires your development environment or test runner.

• Undefined or blank values
• Relationship matching problems
• Duplicate or conflicting keys
• Errors when querying the model

• Normalize all values to upper- or lowercase in the source query or Power Query.
• Add an index or surrogate key when values that differ only by case must remain distinct.

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk and choosing not to take additional action.
• Transfer: Shifting the risk or financial consequences to another party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact through controls, such as patching or access restrictions.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity that creates the risk.

• Technical platform interfaces: Important for integration and interoperability, but they should support—not drive—the architecture.
• Scalability of the network: Valuable as the organization grows, but a scalable solution is ineffective if it does not meet business or security needs.
• Development methodologies: Relevant to implementation, but they do not define the organization’s fundamental security requirements.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best tool for scanning uploaded files.
• C. Load balancer: Improves availability and distributes traffic but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect HTTP requests, but malware scanning of uploaded PDFs is the key requirement here.

• Honeypots are deliberately vulnerable or attractive systems designed to lure attackers. Legitimate users should not normally access them, so activity there can indicate a successful intrusion or lateral movement.

• A DNS sinkhole redirects requests for known malicious domains to a controlled internal system instead of the real destination. Security teams can monitor those requests and identify compromised devices attempting to contact command-and-control infrastructure.

• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens; it is a protection method, not an attacker-detection method.
• CI/CD: Automates software development and deployment processes.
• Threat modeling: Identifies potential threats during design and planning.
• Data obfuscation: Makes information harder to understand, but does not directly detect infiltrators.

• Liability accounts (2000–2999) would incorrectly require dimensions, although they should have none.
• Expense accounts (6000–6998) would incorrectly require Customer, which should be optional.
• Account 6999 needs a separate rule because it requires all four dimensions, including Customer.

• 2000–2999: no dimensions
• 4000–4999: Department and Division required; Project and Customer optional
• 6000–6998: Department, Division, and Project required; Customer optional
• 6999: Department, Division, Project, and Customer required

• contoso.onmicrosoft.com
• contoso1.onmicrosoft.com

• onmicrosoft.com domains: Maximum of five per tenant.
• Custom domains: Domains that your organization owns and verifies in Microsoft 365.

• B: Prompt caching reduces cost and latency for repeated content, but cached content still occupies the context window. It does not solve context accumulation.
• C: Switching to a smaller model changes model capacity but does not address the growing context or remove irrelevant data.
• D: Keeping everything indefinitely increases token usage, risks context-window limits, and can distract the model with outdated information.

• Microsoft manages the physical datacenter, hardware, and virtualization.
• You manage the virtual machine’s operating system, installed software, configuration, and data.
• You choose the VM size, storage, networking, and scaling options.

• SaaS: You consume a complete application managed by the provider, such as Microsoft 365.
• PaaS: You deploy applications without managing the underlying operating system or VM infrastructure, such as Azure App Service.

• D — Value analysis: Correct. It examines an existing product to identify ways of reducing its cost while still providing the required functions, quality and reliability.
• E — Kaizen costing: Correct. It involves making continuous, small improvements and cost reductions while the product is already in production.

• Functional analysis: It is not limited to minimizing the cost of the originally defined functions. It examines what functions are required and how they can be provided at the lowest overall cost.
• Value engineering: Usually applies to the design and development of a new product, rather than being a fundamental redesign of existing organisational processes. That description is closer to business process re-engineering.
• Target costing: The target cost is generally established during the product development stage, before production begins. It is not continuously reset while the product is in production.

1. Open the Offenses tab

1. Open the offense details

1. Review contributing events

1. Analyze the attack chain

1. Investigate the assets

1. Validate and respond