DRAG DROP (Drag and Drop is not supported)
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the related OAuth-defined roles on the right.
Select and Place:

See Explanation section for answer.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 66

Refer to the exhibit. This cURL POST request creates an OAuth access token for authentication with FDM API requests.

What is the purpose of the file “@token_data” that cURL is handling?

This file is given as input to store the access token received from FDM.
This file is used to send authentication-related headers.
This file contains raw data that is needed for token authentication.
This file is a container to log possible error responses in the request.

Answer(s): C

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 67

What is the result of a successful OAuth2 authorization grant flow?

The third-party service is provided with a token that allows actions to be performed.
The user has the application rights that correspond to the user's role within the application's database.
The application is provided with a token that allows actions on services on the user's behalf.
The user has administrative rights to the application's backend services.

Answer(s): C

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 68

In the three-legged OAuth2 process, after the authorization server presents a form to the resource owner to grant access, what is the next step?

The resource owner authenticates and optionally authorizes with the authorization server.
The user who owns the resource initiates a request to the OAuth client.
If the resource owner allows access, the authorization server sends the OAuth client a redirection.
A form to allow or restrict access is submitted by the owner of the resource.

Answer(s): D

Show Answer Next Question

QUESTION: 69

Which OAuth mechanism enables clients to continue to have an active access token without further interaction from the user?

refresh grant
JWT
password grant
preshared key

Answer(s): A

Show Answer Next Question

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350-901 AI Verifications

Alex on: March 02, 2025
Great material
UNITED KINGDOM

miguelcloudops on: May 29, 2026
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Germany

twojobsnosleep on: June 29, 2026
At first I didn't feel very confident about the exam but spending time with the practice questions helped a lot. This website guided me through what to expect so I felt more prepared on test day.
Rwanda

vlanjockey on: May 30, 2026
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Singapore

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South Korea

ztzealot on: June 13, 2026
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Norway

AzureNinja on: June 15, 2026
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France

yusufcerts on: July 25, 2026
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Nigeria

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Thailand

SleepDeprivedPass on: May 18, 2026
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Thailand

careerchangerc on: May 06, 2026
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Denmark

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Denmark

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United States

itdadof3 on: June 15, 2026
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VMwareVince on: June 14, 2026
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Hong Kong

amaraitpro on: May 30, 2026
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Denmark

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United States

yusufcerts on: June 19, 2026
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South Korea

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Ukraine

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Argentina

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Saudi Arabia

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Pakistan

laidoffleveled on: June 06, 2026
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Brazil

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United States

chrisinfosec on: May 30, 2026
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Australia

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Colombia

laylaituae on: May 13, 2026
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South Korea

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Nigeria

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Portugal

jakobvmware on: August 09, 2026
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United States

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Turkey

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Philippines

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South Africa

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Germany

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Ukraine

NetwrkKing on: June 18, 2026
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Malaysia

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Switzerland

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Colombia

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Egypt

r00tkitr on: July 15, 2026
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Portugal

CoffeeAndCerts on: July 21, 2026
I was squeezing in study sessions during lunch breaks and after long workdays. Finally got through the exam thanks to this website's practice questions which made it less stressful.
Hong Kong

AI Explanation - verified by bill.dailey on: July 25, 2026
Question 159:
Question 159 asks about the primary benefit of adding automation and orchestration to a SIEM.
Answer: D) acts as a workforce multiplier.
Why:

Automation handles repetitive tasks, and orchestration coordinates responses across tools (SIEM, SOAR, EDR, etc.).

This allows the security team to process more events with the same number of people, improving throughput and response times.

Analysts can focus on more complex tasks like investigation and threat hunting instead of manual triage.

Why the other options aren’t the primary benefit:

It increases complexity: automation can reduce complexity when well-implemented; complexity is not the main intended benefit.

It removes technical debt: automation/OR focuses on current incident response efficiency, not primarily on architectural debt.

It adds additional guard rails: governance is important but not the core value of automation/orchestration within a SIEM.

Virginia Beach, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User5974 on: August 09, 2026
Question 12:
Correct answer: B — AWS Service Catalog
AWS Service Catalog lets organizations:

Create and manage catalogs of approved IT services

Govern and publish infrastructure-as-code (IaC) templates, commonly AWS CloudFormation templates

Control which users can deploy specific products and configurations

Apply versioning, permissions, and deployment constraints

Why the others are incorrect:

AWS Resource Explorer: Searches and discovers AWS resources; it does not govern IaC templates.

AWS Organizations: Manages multiple AWS accounts, policies, and consolidated billing.

AWS Systems Manager: Helps operate and manage deployed resources, such as patching and automation, but is not primarily a catalog for governed IaC products.

The key clue is governing approved infrastructure templates and deployed IT services, which is the purpose of AWS Service Catalog.
Seongnam-Si, South Korea

AI Explanation - verified by phalanndwalivhuwani on: July 20, 2026
Question 40:
Here’s how to interpret Question 40 and why Box 1 and Box 2 are true, while Box 3 is false.

Correct choice: Box 1 = Yes, Box 2 = Yes, Box 3 = No (Answer: A)

Why:

Box 1: Yes – Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager provides a risk-based compliance score that helps you understand your overall compliance posture. The score reflects how well you’re meeting regulatory requirements and internal policies.

Box 2: Yes – It also offers step-by-step remediation guidance through actionable “improvement actions.” These guide you to implement fixes and align controls, often with links to the relevant consoles.

Box 3: No – Compliance Manager is not part of Microsoft Defender. It is part of Microsoft Purview. Defender is a separate security product family, while Compliance Manager is in Purview for compliance risk and remediation.

Key concepts:

Use Purview Compliance Manager to view your compliance score and follow improvement actions.

Improvement actions provide actionable steps and guidance for remediation.

Defender and Purview are distinct services; do not confuse their scopes.

Johannesburg, South Africa

AI Explanation - verified by elisamangano02 on: August 03, 2026
Question 54:
Question 54 shows code with A = 5; Var b = 1; inside a function, then console.log(a); console.log(b);
Key ideas:

A assigned without var becomes a global variable (in non-strict mode). So after myFunction(), a = 5 is accessible.

b is declared with var inside the function, so it’s local to that function (function-scoped). It’s not defined in the outer (global) scope.

Therefore:

console.log(a) prints 5.

console.log(b) throws a ReferenceError: b is not defined.

So the expected outcome is that the first line outputs 5 and the second line throws an error. The correct answer is B.
Note: the snippet has typos (Function vs function, Var vs var), but the scoping idea remains the same. If rewritten with proper syntax: function myFunction() { a = 5; var b = 1; } myFunction(); console.log(a); console.log(b);
Sassari, Italy

AI Explanation - verified by User1449 on: August 09, 2026
What about fe
FE80::/10 is the IPv6 link-local unicast address range.

Used for communication on the local link or LAN segment

Automatically generated on IPv6-enabled interfaces

Not routed by routers to other networks

Commonly used by devices to communicate with their local IPv6 router

Begins with FE80 through FEBF

For comparison:

FC00::/7 — unique local unicast

FE80::/10 — link-local unicast

FF00::/8 — multicast

2000::/3 — global unicast

Pocatello, United States

AI Explanation - verified by agrim.moudgil123 on: August 06, 2026
Question 1:
Question 1’s correct answers are B and D:

Enable the owner dimension

- The Owner inventory dimension identifies who owns the inventory—your company or the vendor. - This is required to distinguish company-owned inventory from consignment inventory for the same item.

Assign a standard costing inventory model

- Consignment inventory scenarios require the item to use an inventory model that supports the required ownership and cost treatment. In this question, that is standard cost.
Why the others are incorrect:

Batch dimension tracks batches or lots, such as expiration or production batches. It does not identify inventory ownership.

Moving average is a costing method, but it is not the required choice for this consignment configuration.

So, the answer key’s B and D is consistent with the expected Dynamics 365 SCM configuration.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User9758 on: July 25, 2026
Question 147:
Question 147 asks which enterprise security capability best detects employees accessing systems and data unrelated to their duties.

Correct answer: UBA (A)

Why: UBA (User Behavior Analytics) analyzes user activity, builds baselines of normal access patterns, and flags deviations (e.g., accessing sensitive projects not related to the user’s role). This insider-threat detection is exactly what the scenario requires.

Why not the others:

- EDR focuses on endpoint malware/host threats, not broad user access behavior. - NAC controls device/network access, not ongoing monitoring of which resources a user accesses. - DLP prevents data leakage but doesn’t primarily detect who is accessing data or deviating from normal access patterns.
Tip: Look for the option that monitors and flags unusual user behavior rather than focusing on devices, data content, or endpoint threats.
Virginia Beach, United States

AI Explanation - verified by sophielargeaudproust on: July 25, 2026
Question 66:
You're referring to Q66. The answer key shows B, but the more correct choice based on IAPP exam objectives is C: To identify security vulnerabilities.
Why:

Ethical red-teaming is adversarial testing aimed at uncovering weaknesses and potential exploits in an AI system before deployment.

A (improving accuracy) is not the primary?? of red-teaming.

B (simulate model risk scenarios) is related but narrower; red-teaming centers on finding vulnerabilities and risk exposure, not just simulating risks.

D (ensure compliance) is not the main goal of red-teaming.

So, the primary purpose is to identify security vulnerabilities (C). If you want, I can walk through how red-teaming tools and scenarios map to different vulnerability categories.
Montélimar, France

AI Explanation - verified by User5630 on: July 29, 2026
Question 51:

The answer: Question 51: C — Request trigger.

Why:

To invoke a Logic App from an external service (here, the Azure Application Insights availability test) you need a trigger that starts on an incoming HTTP request. In Logic Apps, this is the trigger that exposes an HTTP endpoint — typically shown as "When a HTTP request is received" and referred to as the Request trigger.

The other options aren’t appropriate:

- HTTP webhook trigger is for webhook-style callbacks with a handshake and isn’t the standard inbound trigger for a simple HTTP POST. - HTTP trigger is not the commonly exposed inbound trigger in Logic Apps; the inbound trigger is the Request (When a HTTP request is received). - ApiConnection trigger is used to start a flow via a specific connector, not for generic external HTTP events.
How it works in practice:

Create a Logic App with the Request trigger to generate a URL.

Configure Application Insights to post the degraded-availability payload to that URL.

Add actions (e.g., send email, follow-up) in the Logic App to notify the customer services team.

Mumbai, India

AI Explanation - verified by bmccloskey on: July 27, 2026
Question 17:
Question 17 asks which conditions will prevent an OSPF adjacency from reaching the Full state. The three correct options are A, B, and D.

A) MTU mismatch: OSPF neighbors must exchange Hello packets with a compatible MTU. If MTUs differ, the neighbor conversation fails and the adjacency cannot become Full.

B) Incorrect subnet mask: Routers must be in the same IP subnet on the connected link to form a neighbor relationship. A subnet mismatch prevents Hello packets from being considered valid on the same network.

D) Area ID not the same: Neighbors must share the same Area ID. A mismatch stops adjacency from forming beyond the 2-Way state.

Why the others aren’t correct (in this context):

E) Different metric set on each end of the link: Cost differences do not prevent OSPF adjacency; they affect routing decisions, not neighbor formation.

F) Router ID not defined: OSPF can auto-choose a router ID; an undefined ID is not a prerequisite for adjacency to reach Full.

C is sometimes a consideration (if the interface isn’t running OSPF at all), but the official key lists A, B, D as the three factors.
Hilo, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User9941 on: July 24, 2026
Question 8:
Question 8 asks which statements about template BOMs are TRUE. The correct selections are usually A and C.

A) You can only apply a single template BOM to a service object.

- Why this is true: In Dynamics 365, a service item is typically associated with at most one BOM template at a time. You don’t apply multiple templates to the same service object, so this is a true constraint.

C) You can modify or delete lines in a BOM template regardless of whether the template has been associated to a service object, or not.

- Why this is true: BOM templates are editable templates. You can add, modify, or delete lines in the template even if the template has already been linked to a service object. Changes to the template affect future BOMs created from the template, not necessarily existing BOMs.
Why the others are false:

B) You can apply many template BOMs to a service object — false; typically only one template per service object.

D) You can modify/delete lines only if not associated — false; you can modify templates even after association (per C).

Note: Modifying a template may not retroactively change already created BOMs; use caution and test how changes propagate.
Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User4614 on: July 24, 2026
Question 27:
Question 27 asks which solution lets you host an ML model and serve predictions in production without managing infrastructure.

Answer: A. Use Amazon SageMaker Serverless Inference to deploy the model.

Why: SageMaker Serverless Inference hosts the model and serves real-time predictions without you provisioning or managing servers. It scales automatically and handles deployment details.

Why the others aren’t suitable:

- CloudFront: a content delivery network; not for hosting or serving ML model predictions. - API Gateway: exposes APIs but requires underlying compute (e.g., Lambda or SageMaker) to actually run the model; not a true serverless model-hosting solution by itself. - AWS Batch: designed for batch processing, not real-time inference.

Quick example flow: web app ? SageMaker Serverless Inference endpoint ? model ? response.

Tokyo, Japan

AI Explanation - verified by User6701 on: August 10, 2026
Question 1:
Correct answer: A — Configure SetupComplete.cmd in %windir%\setup\scripts.
SetupComplete.cmd is a Windows Setup mechanism that runs automatically after Windows installation or deployment finishes. It can call your PowerShell scripts, for example:

cmd powershell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass -File C:\Scripts\Configure-VM.ps1

This is appropriate when preparing a VM image or deploying multiple VMs that require the same post-installation configuration.
Why the other options are less suitable:

GPO logon script: Runs only when a user logs on, so configuration may be delayed and is user-dependent.

GPO startup script: Can work, but requires the VMs to be domain-joined and introduces GPO dependency. It is not specifically tied to Windows deployment.

Place scripts in a VHD: Merely makes the files available; it does not execute them.

Important correction: The supplied explanation discusses Azure Custom Script Extension, which does not match this question’s on-premises Hyper-V scenario. The answer key’s A is reasonable, but that explanation appears to belong to a different Azure VM question.
Amsterdam, The Netherlands

AI Explanation - verified by ryantherasin on: August 10, 2026
Question 1:
Question 1 is a network-configuration simulation. The goal is to satisfy two requirements:

Remote access to a Windows PC

Full chat and optional game-console functions

The configuration should be reasoned through as follows:

Windows Remote Desktop (RDP) uses TCP 3389. The router needs a port-forwarding rule that sends incoming traffic on that port to the Windows PC’s internal IP address.

The game console should connect through the wireless AP. Using WPA2-PSK provides the required wireless security while allowing normal online, chat, and optional services.

The firewall should separate the internal network from the screened subnet. Its screened-subnet-side address is shown as 10.100.0.1.

Devices must be placed in the correct network locations: the PC behind the router, the console on the wireless AP, and the firewall between the appropriate network segments.

The answer key’s configuration is therefore conceptually correct, although the exact simulation choices depend on the image and dropdown options, which aren’t visible here. In a real network, exposing RDP directly to the internet is risky; a VPN or secure gateway would generally be safer.
Long Branch, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User2973 on: July 23, 2026
Question 11:
Question 11 asks how to hide accounts that don’t match the search string by setting the CSS display property.
Key idea:

If the account name includes the parsed search string, show the element; otherwise hide it.

In CSS, to show an element you can set display to a visible value (commonly 'block' for block-level elements), and to hide you set display to 'none'.

Reasoning:

The ternary should map true to a visible display value and false to 'none'.

Therefore the placeholder should be replaced with 'block' : 'none' (so the code becomes: accountName.includes(parsedSearchString) ? 'block' : 'none').

Notes:

There are several typos in the snippet (e.g., quesrySelectorAll, toLOwerCase, Style.display). In a working version you’d also fix those to document.querySelectorAll, account.innerHTML.toLowerCase(), and account.style.display.

Correct answer concept: use accountName.includes(parsedSearchString) ? 'block' : 'none'. The provided bank answer (B) appears inconsistent with the intended logic.
Pune, India

AI Explanation - verified by User3634 on: July 23, 2026
Question 7:

Answer: A

Reason: The Standard web tier is the lowest tier that provides dedicated compute, built-in load balancing across instances, and sufficient storage to host multiple apps with custom domains. Basic may lack the required scalability/storage, while Free/Shared do not offer dedicated compute or proper load balancing.

Gurugram, India

AI Explanation - verified by User8413 on: July 18, 2026
Question 1:
Question 1 asks about using cyber insurance to address items on the risk register. The correct answer is Transfer (Option B).
Why:

Risk transfer means shifting the financial impact of a threat from the organization to another party (the insurer). Buying cyber insurance accomplishes this shift.

It is not Accept: acceptance of risk would be tolerating it without action.

It is not Mitigate: mitigation involves reducing likelihood or impact with controls, not shifting costs.

It is not Avoid: avoidance would be not engaging in the activity that creates the risk; insurance does not remove the risk itself.

Short example: if a data breach occurs, the insurer would cover the costs, not the organization.
Key concept: risk transfer is one of the main risk response strategies, alongside acceptance, mitigation, and avoidance.
Cairo, Egypt

AI Explanation - verified by User7958 on: August 12, 2026
Question 25:
Correct answer: D — use Amazon SQS between two Lambda functions.
The architecture becomes:

Ingestion Lambda receives requests from API Gateway and places messages in an SQS queue.

Processing Lambda is triggered by the queue and loads records into Aurora PostgreSQL.

Why this works:

Decoupling: API request handling is separated from database loading.

Buffering: SQS absorbs bursts when incoming traffic exceeds the database’s processing capacity.

Controlled concurrency: Configure the SQS-triggered Lambda’s concurrency and batch size to avoid overwhelming Aurora or exhausting database connections.

Automatic retries: Messages that fail processing can return to the queue and be retried. A dead-letter queue can capture persistent failures.

Lower operational effort: The solution remains serverless and avoids managing EC2 servers or Kubernetes clusters.

The answer key’s D is correct.

A: EC2 and Tomcat add server-management overhead.

B: DynamoDB/DAX would require changing the database model and does not solve the Aurora ingestion design.

C: SNS is useful for notifications and fanout, but SQS is better for durable buffering and backpressure in this producer-consumer workflow.

Busan, South Korea

AI Explanation - verified by User3803 on: August 12, 2026
Question 16:
Correct answer: C — Create a dataflows connection with Import mode selected and schedule a daily refresh.
Why:

Import mode loads the data into the Power BI model. Visuals query the in-memory model, which generally provides faster calculation and rendering than DirectQuery.

Import mode also minimizes online processing because report interactions do not send queries back to the dataflow or SQL Server.

A daily refresh can load data through the previous day, satisfying the freshness requirement without unnecessary hourly processing.

Why the other options are less suitable:

DirectQuery keeps querying the data source or dataflow during report use, increasing online processing and potentially slowing visuals.

Adding a gateway enables connectivity for on-premises sources, but it does not remove the performance disadvantages of DirectQuery.

An hourly Power Automate refresh is unnecessary when the requirement is only data through the previous day and creates additional processing overhead.

The Enhanced Dataflows Compute Engine can improve dataflow query performance, but it does not make DirectQuery preferable when minimizing report query activity and visual rendering time are the priorities.
Toronto, Canada

AI Explanation - verified by monika.nidhi42 on: July 21, 2026
Question 218:
Question 218 explains how to calculate the ALE (Annualized Loss Expectancy).

Key concept: ALE = SLE × ARO

- SLE (Single Loss Expectancy) is the financial impact of a single incident. - ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence) is how often, per year, the incident is expected to occur.
Given:

SLE = $15,000

Occurrences: 2 in 3 years ? ARO = 2/3 per year ˜ 0.6667

Compute:

ALE = $15,000 × 0.6667 ˜ $10,000 per year

Answer: $10,000 (Option B)
Notes:

ALE is the expected annual loss, so it averages the losses over each year.

This helps prioritize risk treatments by comparing ALE to the cost of controls.

Basingstoke, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User1052 on: August 12, 2026
Question 21:
Question 21’s images contain the answer-area options, so I can’t map the exact selections. However, the intended solution is likely:

Create Power Query parameters for the Azure SQL server/database—or at least the database name.

Use the parameter in the PBIX connection.

Publish the same PBIX separately to the relevant development, test, and production workspaces.

Set each dataset’s parameter value in the Power BI service so it points to the corresponding Azure SQL database.

For example:

Development dataset ? DevelopmentDB

Test dataset ? TestDB

Production dataset ? ProductionDB

This satisfies the requirements because:

The same PBIX is used for every lifecycle stage.

Each stage consumes data from its matching database.

Deployment pipelines are not required.

Azure SQL is a cloud source, so gateway administration is generally avoided.

Only the parameter value differs between published datasets, reducing maintenance.

The answer key shows A, but the exact hotspot selections cannot be verified without the missing images. The key concept is Power Query parameters with separate published datasets configured for each environment.
Petaling Jaya, Malaysia

AI Explanation - verified by User9277 on: July 29, 2026
Question 12:
Question 12 asks which admin centers to use for common Power Apps admin tasks.

Answer:

- Box 1: Azure Active Directory - Box 2: Power Apps admin center

Why:

- Azure Active Directory is the identity provider for users. Creating company users there is the foundational step before they can access any apps. - Power Apps admin center is where you manage Power Apps-specific admin tasks, such as creating and managing environments and assigning roles (Environment Admin, Environment Maker), which is exactly what you need for Power Apps administration.

Why the other centers aren’t the right fit here:

- Dynamics 365 admin center focuses on Dynamics 365 apps, solutions, and updates. - Power BI admin portal handles tenant-wide Power BI settings and usage metrics. - Microsoft 365 admin center is broader for general user accounts; you’d still use Azure AD for identity, and the Power Apps admin center for environment/app management.
Pune, India

AI Explanation - verified by jdpjames on: July 30, 2026
Question 104:
Question 104 asks which type of resource requires IP addresses to be defined inside subnets.

Answer: Internal load balancers (ILB) — option C.

Why:

An ILB has a frontend IP address that must be a private IP within the subnet’s address space. You pick this IP when you create the ILB, and it can be Static or Dynamic.

Other options don’t require a per-subnet IP:

- Azure DDoS Protection is a per-VNet service, not something that needs a subnet frontend IP. - Virtual network peering uses existing IP spaces between VNets; it doesn’t allocate a new subnet IP. - Service endpoints are configured in a subnet but do not require a dedicated IP address for the endpoint.
So the subnet IP requirement comes from the ILB frontend configuration, not from the other resource types. If you want, I can walk through an example of creating an ILB with a static private IP in a subnet.
Chennai, India

AI Explanation - verified by User5943 on: August 13, 2026
Question 5:
Answer: No.
Azure virtual machines are an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) solution, not Platform as a Service (PaaS).

IaaS: You deploy and manage virtual machines, operating systems, disks, and networking. Azure manages the physical datacenter and host infrastructure.

PaaS: Azure manages the operating system and runtime so you can focus on deploying applications, such as with Azure App Service or Azure Functions.

SaaS: You consume a complete, provider-managed application.

Because the requirement is to deploy Azure VMs, PaaS does not meet the goal. The answer key’s B — No is correct.
Auckland, New Zealand

AI Explanation - verified by User9750 on: August 13, 2026
Question 5:
Correct answer: A — Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP).
WPA2, particularly WPA2-Enterprise, uses 802.1X with EAP to authenticate users through an authentication server. This provides stronger, individual user authentication than a shared Wi-Fi password.
Why the other options are incorrect:

IPsec: Protects traffic at the network layer, commonly for VPNs; it is not WPA2’s authentication protocol.

SSL: Protects specific application sessions and has largely been replaced by TLS.

SSH: Secures remote command-line administration.

A useful nuance: WPA2 also protects wireless traffic using encryption, commonly AES-CCMP. However, among the listed choices, EAP is the protocol associated with stronger WPA2-Enterprise authentication. WPA2-Personal instead typically uses a pre-shared key rather than EAP.
Dhahran, Saudi Arabia

AI Explanation - verified by User3332 on: August 11, 2026
Question 17:
Correct answer: D — 587
Port 587 is used for authenticated SMTP email submission, typically with encryption such as STARTTLS. Email clients use it to securely send outgoing mail through a mail server.
Why the others are incorrect:

25 — Traditional SMTP server-to-server mail transfer; not normally used for secure client submission.

110 — POP3, used to retrieve email and typically unencrypted.

143 — IMAP, used to access email and typically unencrypted.

Note: Port 465 is also commonly associated with SMTP over implicit TLS, but it is not one of the choices. Therefore, 587 is the best answer here.
Lincoln, United States

AI Explanation - verified by abccba on: August 07, 2026
Question 6:
Question 6: Answer A — Download and reinstall the VPN client configuration package.
A Point-to-Site (P2S) VPN client receives routing information in its VPN client configuration package. When the client package was originally downloaded, it contained the route for VirtualNetworkA, but not the newly peered VirtualNetworkB address space.
After creating the peering:

Download the updated VPN client configuration package from the Azure VPN gateway.

Remove or update the existing VPN client configuration on the Windows 10 workstation.

Install the new package and reconnect.

The updated client configuration includes the route needed to reach VirtualNetworkB.
The gateway-transit options in the other choices are not the appropriate fix in this scenario. Also, gateway transit normally involves configuring the gateway VNet to allow gateway transit and the peered VNet to use remote gateways; selecting only one setting would not complete that configuration.
Batley, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User9493 on: July 22, 2026
Question 36:
Correct answer: IDS (intrusion detection system)
Why:

An IDS monitors network traffic for signs of attacks and raises alerts. It can be deployed out-of-band (via a SPAN/mirror port or a tap) so it analyzes traffic without being inline, meaning it doesn’t measurably affect latency.

An IPS (intrusion prevention system) is inline and can block threats, but that processing can introduce some latency and potential throughput impact.

A firewall also inspects traffic and can add latency, though usually modest with proper hardware, but its primary purpose isn’t continuous passive analysis.

A load balancer distributes traffic and isn’t used for intrusion analysis.

So, to analyze attacks from the internet without impacting latency, use an out-of-band IDS.
Essex, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User1358 on: August 04, 2026
Question 16:
Here’s why Question 16 points to option C.

Key difference: DirectQuery leaves data in the on-prem SQL Server and queries it live. That means every visual request can trigger online processing on the source, which can be slower and adds load on the on-prem system. In contrast, Import loads data into the Power BI data model, so visuals render from the in-memory engine (faster).

Why that helps with the requirements:

- Minimize online processing operations: Using Import avoids live queries to the on-prem database. - Minimize calculation and render times: The in-memory engine (VertiPaq) typically renders visuals faster than querying a live source. - Include data from the current year up to the previous day: Schedule a daily refresh so the dataset contains data up to yesterday (not today).

Why not A or B: Both rely on live data via DirectQuery, which contradicts the goal to minimize online processing and visuals performance.

Why not D: It uses Import, but refreshing hourly adds unnecessary processing and complexity when daily refresh already satisfies currency needs.

Answer: C — Use a dataflow in Import mode and schedule a daily refresh.
Lagos, Nigeria

AI Explanation - verified by nanrany on: July 29, 2026
Question 176:
The correct answer is AWS Application Discovery Service.

Why: ADS is designed to collect information about on-premises environments to plan migrations. It inventories details like hostname, IP address, MAC address, OS, hardware, and installed software, plus dependency mappings. This data helps you understand your current environment before moving to AWS.

How it differs from the other options:

- AWS DataSync focuses on transferring data between on-prem and AWS, not providing a network/inventory view. - AWS Application Migration Service (MGN) helps migrate workloads but isn’t primarily used for discovering on-prem inventory. - AWS Database Migration Service moves databases, not general host information.

Practical use: Install the ADS agent on on-prem hosts to collect data, then view the inventory in Migration Hub to inform migration planning and sequencing.

Busan, South Korea

AI Explanation - verified by User7070 on: July 17, 2026
Question 9:
Answer: The correct plan is Standard (A).
Why:

Two instances: Free/Shared do not provide the production-level multi-instance hosting you need. Basic/Standard support more than one instance, with Standard specifically meeting the scale requirement.

SSL support: SSL (custom domain TLS) isn’t available on the Free tier and isn’t a driver for cost on paid tiers—but you’ll need a paid tier to map a custom domain (miami.weyland.com) and use SSL.

Storage: Your site needs 12 GB. Free/Shared have very limited storage; Basic tier storage is typically smaller than what you need, while Standard provides substantially more storage capacity.

Cost: Among the tiers that meet all requirements (two instances, SSL, sufficient storage), Standard is the lowest-cost option that satisfies them.

In short, Free or Shared don’t meet the production needs; Basic may not meet the storage/scale combination, so Standard is the minimal tier that fits all requirements. For verification, see the Azure plan/limits documentation.
Delhi, India

AI Explanation - verified by User8116 on: August 13, 2026
Question 63:
Correct answer: C — Amazon RDS
Amazon RDS is a managed relational database service that supports PostgreSQL. PostgreSQL is commonly used for online transaction processing (OLTP)—applications that handle frequent, short transactions such as inserts, updates, and queries.
AWS manages tasks such as database provisioning, backups, patching, and maintenance.
Why the others are incorrect:

Amazon DynamoDB — Managed NoSQL database, not PostgreSQL.

Amazon Athena — Serverless service for querying data in S3; intended for analytics, not OLTP.

Amazon EMR — Managed cluster platform for big-data frameworks such as Hadoop and Spark.

Exam memory aid: RDS supports managed relational engines, including PostgreSQL, while OLTP generally uses relational databases.
Sapporo, Japan

AI Explanation - verified by User9941 on: July 24, 2026
Question 7:
Question 7 asks how to fix missing postings to the product receipt journal when an item is received, by adjusting the Item model group.
Correct action: check the "Accrue liability on product receipt" on the Item model group setup form.
Why:

The Accrue liability on product receipt flag controls whether a liability is accrued and posted at the time of receiving the item.

If this checkbox is unchecked, receipts won’t create postings to the Product receipt journal. Enabling it ensures the system posts inventory value and the vendor liability when the item is received.

What to do:

Go to the Item model group setup form.

Enable (check) Accrue liability on product receipt.

Save.

Notes:

The other option, Include physical value, affects how physical value is handled but is not the direct cause of postings to the product receipt journal. If issues persist after enabling accrual, you may need to verify related posting definitions or journal setup.

Bengaluru, India

AI Explanation - verified by User3892 on: August 07, 2026
Question 1:
Correct answer: B — The HTTP Request operation will succeed if the CA’s certificate is present in the JRE’s default truststore.
Why:

The target API uses HTTPS, so Mule must validate the server’s TLS certificate.

The TLS configuration is set to None, meaning no custom truststore is configured.

Mule therefore uses the JRE’s default truststore to determine whether the target certificate is trusted.

If the issuing CA certificate is in that truststore, the TLS handshake can succeed.

If it is absent—or the certificate is otherwise invalid—the request fails with a TLS/handshake error.

The keystore is different: it generally contains private keys and certificates owned by the client, commonly used for client authentication in mutual TLS (mTLS). This question concerns validating the server certificate, which uses a truststore.
Chennai, India

AI Explanation - verified by User5172 on: July 24, 2026
Question 9:
Here’s how to approach Question 9 (the drag-and-drop):

Mapping:

- website hosting ? PaaS - a virtual machine that runs Linux ? IaaS - document storage that uses OneDrive for Business ? SaaS

Why:

- Website hosting on a managed platform (e.g., Azure App Service) abstracts OS and runtime management, so you focus on code—this is PaaS. - A Linux VM is an infrastructure you control (OS updates, software installed, patches), while the cloud provides the VM hardware—this is IaaS. - OneDrive for Business is a ready-to-use software service managed by the provider—this is SaaS.

Quick note: If you were to host a website on a VM, it would be IaaS; if you used a platform service instead of a VM, it would be PaaS. CaaS (containers) isn’t shown here.

Hyderabad, India

AI Explanation - verified by User3980 on: July 30, 2026
Question 71:
Question 71: Defects associated with project deliverables have been reported. The project team needs to find the cause of the defects. Which of the following tools should the project team use to find the cause? Ishikawa diagram (option C)

Why Ishikawa:

- It’s a root cause analysis tool (fishbone diagram) that helps identify multiple potential causes across categories (e.g., People, Process, Tools, Materials, Environment) and trace them to the underlying problem.

Why not the others:

- Kanban board: visualizes workflow and work in progress, not root cause analysis. - Pareto chart: shows the most frequent issues, useful for prioritization but does not directly identify root causes. - Decision tree: aids decision-making under uncertainty, not primarily for root-cause analysis.
Example: If defects are traced to a coding defect, the Ishikawa diagram might explore categories like methods (coding standards), personnel (training), machines (build tools), materials (libraries), and environment (test data). This helps pinpoint the fundamental cause and guide fixes.
Olive Branch, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User1404 on: August 10, 2026
Question 17:
Correct answer: B — Enabling malware detection through a UTM.
A public file-upload feature creates a risk that attackers will upload a malicious PDF containing malware or an exploit. A unified threat management (UTM) appliance can inspect traffic and uploaded files using security functions such as antimalware scanning, helping detect and block malicious content before it reaches internal systems.
Why the others are weaker:

A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity and usually alerts rather than directly scanning and blocking uploaded files.

C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers but does not inspect files for malware.

D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and some malicious requests. It is not primarily a PDF-malware scanning solution.

In a real deployment, additional controls such as file-type validation, sandboxing, antivirus scanning, content disarm and reconstruction, and storing uploads outside the web root would also be appropriate.
Beau Bassin-Rose Hill, Mauritius

AI Explanation - verified by User1584 on: August 14, 2026
Question 109:
Correct answer: B — False.
When test-driving an AppExchange application, you can inspect the application’s configuration, including its S-Control definitions (in the legacy Salesforce context). The test-drive environment is generally read-only, so you may be unable to change or fully administer the components, but that does not mean the S-Control configurations cannot be viewed.
Key distinction:

View/inspect configuration: Possible.

Modify the installed application or its S-Controls: Typically restricted in a test-drive org.

The answer key’s B is consistent with this distinction. S-Controls are now a legacy feature, largely replaced by tools such as Visualforce, Lightning components, and Lightning Web Components.
Milan, Italy

AI Explanation - verified by User9198 on: July 28, 2026
Question 110:
Question 110: The correct answer is D — Amazon S3 File Gateway.
Explanation:

A Storage Gateway File Gateway provides an on-premises NFS/SMB file share that's backed by objects in S3. This is exactly what you need to migrate an NFS workload: applications continue using NFS, while the actual data moves to and is stored in S3.

It can cache frequently accessed data locally for performance, while uploads go to an S3 bucket.

Why the other options aren’t suitable:

- Tape Gateway: for archival, not live file workloads. - Volume Gateway: offers block storage (iSCSI) rather than a file-based interface. - Amazon FSx File Gateway: doesn’t exist; FSx is a separate service (e.g., FSx for Windows File Server) and is not a Storage Gateway file interface.
Busan, South Korea

AI Explanation - verified by seymourpro1 on: July 27, 2026
Question 17:
Question 17 asks how to configure a single Opportunity object to support three different teams with separate fields and stages.
Key Salesforce concepts:

Sales Processes define the set of Opportunity stages for a given workflow.

Record Types let you have different data models (different fields and picklist values) on the same object.

Page Layouts control which fields are shown/required for each record type.

Why the right approach is:

Create three Sales Processes so each team can use its own stages.

Create three Record Types so each team has its own fields and picklist values.

Create three Page Layouts so each record type shows the appropriate fields.

With three teams (sales teams + services for installation), you map each team to a unique combination of sales process, record type, and page layout.
Answer: C
Boulogne-Billancourt, France

AI Explanation - verified by is.chan.army on: August 03, 2026
Question 50:
Question 50 explains a scenario where DoS/DDoS is suspected and the team uses manual techniques to detect it. The best command is:

Answer: C – netstat -an

Why:

netstat -an lists all active connections and listening ports with numeric addresses, without resolving names. This lets you spot DoS patterns such as a flood of connections to a specific port or many connections from a single or few IPs.

The other options don’t help as directly:

- netstat -r shows the routing table, not active connections. - nbtstat commands deal with NetBIOS name table (Windows local network info), not DoS traffic. - /c (clear) isn’t relevant to detection.
How to use in practice:

Windows: netstat -an and look for numerous ESTABLISHED connections to a service or many SYNs to a port.

Filter by port, e.g., netstat -an | findstr :80, or on Linux: ss -tunap | grep ':80'.

Limitations:

Netstat provides a snapshot. DoS detection often benefits from continuous monitoring, flow data, and IDS/IPS logs.

Tamarac, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User4002 on: July 23, 2026
Question 2:
Here’s the reasoning for Question 2 (Testlet 1).

Statement 1: Admin1 must approve requests for the Agent ID Developer role — No

- Why: The Agent ID Developer role does not require activation approval. No approval request is generated when activating this role.

Statement 2: Admin2 can approve requests for the AI Administrator role — No

- Why: The AI Administrator role requires approval to activate, but there are no specific approvers configured. When no explicit approvers are set, only default approvers apply (active Global Administrators and Privileged Role Administrators). Admin2 isn’t one of those default approvers, so Admin2 cannot approve.

Statement 3: Admin3 can assign User1 a two-day active assignment for the Agent ID Developer role — Yes

- Why: The one-day activation maximum duration applies to eligible-role activations, not to administrator-created active assignments. Active assignments for Agent ID Developer can last up to the configured period (15 days in this scenario), so a two-day active assignment is allowed.
Answer: No, No, Yes
Maricá, Brazil

AI Explanation - verified by User8587 on: August 10, 2026
Question 14:
Question 14: Yes — answer A is correct.
Synchronizing the on-premises Active Directory accounts to Azure Active Directory (now Microsoft Entra ID) helps minimize disruption when resources move to Azure.
Benefits include:

Users retain their existing usernames and passwords.

Existing accounts can be used to access Azure-based resources.

Administrators avoid manually recreating thousands of accounts.

The transition is less disruptive before the on-premises data center is retired.

This is typically implemented with Microsoft Entra Connect, which synchronizes identities from on-premises Active Directory to Microsoft Entra ID. Depending on the authentication configuration, users may also continue using their on-premises passwords for cloud sign-in.
Cape Town, South Africa

AI Explanation - verified by User4219 on: August 03, 2026
Question 1:
This question tests how to invoke an async function and handle its Promise.
Key idea

runParallel is defined as async, so it returns a Promise.

To use the result, you attach a then handler (or use await inside another async function).

Evaluate the options

A: “Async runParallel() .then(data);” is invalid. “async” is a keyword for function declarations, not something you put in front of a call, and you’d need a function as the then-argument.

B: “runParallel().done(function(data){return data;});” .done is not standard in native Promises (it exists in some libraries). Without a compatible library, this won’t work.

C: “runParallel().then(data);” is invalid because then expects a function as its argument; data is not a function.

D: “runParallel().then(function(data){ return data; });” is valid (or equivalently, runParallel().then(data => data);).

Conclusion

The robust, standard option is D.

B could work only with a library that provides .done; otherwise it’s not reliable.

Note: The supplied key says B and D, but in plain JavaScript promises, only D is reliably correct.
Sassari, Italy

AI Explanation - verified by User2367 on: July 22, 2026
Question 4:
Q4 asks: Which permission is required to create, delete, refresh or activate a Sandbox?

The correct permission is Manage Sandboxes (the official Salesforce name; the option in the list is written as “Manage Sandbox,” which is effectively the same idea but the canonical name uses the plural).

Why: Sandboxes are a lifecycle feature. Only users with the explicit Manage Sandboxes permission can perform create, delete, refresh, or activate actions.

Why the other options aren’t correct:

- Sandbox Editor, Environment Manager are not the standard permissions to control sandbox lifecycle. - System Administrator is a broad profile level capability; you still rely on the explicit Manage Sandboxes permission to perform sandbox tasks.
Tip: If you see a singular vs. plural naming in the choices, rely on the Salesforce permission name in the docs: “Manage Sandboxes.” You can verify this in the Salesforce Help article sf.data_sandbox_manage.htm.
Mckinney, United States

AI Explanation - verified by User6290 on: July 21, 2026
Question 21:

Answer: Record Producer (option D)

Why: In ServiceNow HR Service Delivery, to make an HR Service usable from the Employee Service Center (self-service portal), there must be a way for employees to submit the request. A Record Producer provides the employee-facing form that creates the underlying HR Case when submitted. Without a linked Record Producer, the HR Service wouldn’t offer a submit form in the Employee Center.

What the other fields are generally for (not required for exposure):

- Checklist: tasks or steps tied to the case after it’s created. - Fulfiller Instructions: guidance for the HR agent handling the case. - Lifecycle Event type: relates to lifecycle events for the HR Case, not its visibility in the Employee Center.

Quick check: Look at the HR Service definition and ensure a Record Producer is associated so employees can submit requests from the Employee Center.

Kolkata, India

AI Explanation - verified by User1232 on: July 16, 2026
Question 2:
Correct answer: C) Risk register
Reason: A risk register is the artifact that documents each risk, assigns responsible parties (owners), and defines risk thresholds and proposed treatments.

Risk tolerance describes the organization’s overall risk appetite, not the risks themselves.

Risk transfer is a treatment option (e.g., insurance), not a documentation artifact.

Risk analysis assesses likelihood and impact but doesn’t establish ownership or thresholds in a formal register.

Anonymous

AI Explanation - verified by User8116 on: July 18, 2026
Question 1:
Question 1 asks you to allocate devices to outlets so the customer has the most time to save cloud work and shut down gracefully during a power outage.
Key concepts:

UPS (uninterruptible power supply) provides battery backup (time to save work and shut down).

Surge protector only blocks surges; it does not provide backup power.

To maximize uptime for essential tasks, put the devices that must stay powered during an outage on the UPS. Put less-critical devices on the surge protector or a wall outlet.

Recommended approach (typical for a SOHO):

Put on the UPS: the desktop computer, monitor, network gear (router/modem), and any external drives or essential peripherals you need to keep running to save to the cloud.

Put on the surge protector (or wall outlet): nonessential devices like printers, scanners, speakers, or lamps.

Why: this gives you the longest window to save work to cloud and perform a graceful shutdown, while protecting mission-critical equipment from power surges. If the simulation requires specific device placements, apply the same principle: critical computing and network gear on the UPS, others on the surge protector.
Hackney, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User1304 on: July 29, 2026
An organization is adopting cloud services at a rapid pace and now has multiple SaaS applications in use. Each application has a separate log-in. so the security team wants to reduce the number of credentials each employee must maintain. Which of the following is the first step the security team should take? Options: A. Enable SAML B. Create OAuth tokens. C. Use password vaulting. D. Select an IdP

Answer: D. Select an IdP

Why: To reduce the number of credentials across multiple SaaS apps, implement a single sign-on approach via an Identity Provider. The first step is choosing the IdP; once selected, you can enable SAML (A) or OAuth as supported by apps. Password vaulting (C) is not a true SSO solution, and B is not the foundational step.

Basingstoke, United Kingdom

AI Explanation - verified by User8514 on: August 14, 2026
Question 24:
The answer key appears incorrect. The correct choices are C and D, because the object name is stored in the variable myObject.

C — Schema.describeSObjects(new String[]{myObject})[0].fields.getMap()

- Schema.describeSObjects() accepts object API names as strings. - It returns DescribeSObjectResult objects, whose fields.getMap() provides a map of field names to Schema.SObjectField tokens.

D — Schema.getGlobalDescribe().get(myObject).getDescribe().fields.getMap()

- getGlobalDescribe() returns a map of all objects. - .get(myObject) retrieves the object using its API name. - .getDescribe().fields.getMap() retrieves its fields.
The other choices are invalid:

A: sObjectType is not used this way, and fieldSet() is not the appropriate method for retrieving all fields.

B: mySObject.myObject is not valid dynamic Apex syntax.

So, C and D are the valid dynamic schema approaches.
San Juan, Philippines

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Cisco 350-901 Exam Actual Questions Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR) (Page 16 )

QUESTION: 65

Explanation:

QUESTION: 66

QUESTION: 67

QUESTION: 68

QUESTION: 69

Cisco 350-901 Exam Actual Questions
Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR) (Page 16 )