ISACA AAIA Exam Prep
ISACA Advanced in AI Audit (Page 24 )

• Injection
• Broken access control
• Authentication failures
• Security misconfiguration
• Cross-site scripting

• STIX: A standardized language and format for exchanging threat intelligence.
• OVAL: Used to describe and assess system vulnerabilities and configuration issues.
• Threat intelligence feed: Provides current indicators and intelligence about threats, but not necessarily a structured overview of common application exploitation methods.
• CVE: A catalog of individually identified, publicly disclosed vulnerabilities.

• The Intune device limit restriction does not apply in the normal way; DEM enrollment supports up to 1,000 devices.
• However, the Microsoft Entra maximum number of devices per user setting can still impose a limit when the enrollment creates an Entra device object.
• Therefore, a DEM account is not automatically unlimited. The effective limit depends on the Entra device setting and the enrollment/join type.

• A — Windows 11 with Azure CLI installed: Yes

• D — Chrome OS using Azure Cloud Shell: Yes

• E — Windows 10 with the Azure PowerShell module installed: Yes

• B — Linux with only Azure CLI: No, because the option does not state that PowerShell is installed.
• C — macOS with PowerShell Core only: No, because it does not state that Azure PowerShell modules or Azure CLI are installed.

• Highly polished, organization-wide presentations
• Advanced dashboard design and customization
• Broader business-user distribution and interaction
• Specialized BI governance and modeling features

• B. Versioned configuration files — Infrastructure is defined in machine-readable files and tracked in version control, allowing repeatable provisioning and change history.
• D. Docker files — Assuming “Doctor files” is a typo for Dockerfiles, a Dockerfile declaratively defines how to build a container image and is commonly considered infrastructure/configuration as code.

• A. Cloned virtual machine images — These are prebuilt infrastructure artifacts, but cloning an image is not itself a code-based infrastructure definition.
• C. Change management database records — A CMDB records information about infrastructure; it does not define or provision that infrastructure.

• A: CEO-sponsored formal policy — demonstrates executive support, but sponsorship at one point in time may not sustain commitment.
• B: Security awareness training — primarily improves employee behavior, not senior management commitment.
• C: Periodic alignment reviews — ongoing reviews show that security remains relevant, supports business priorities, and uses resources appropriately.
• D: Senior management signoff on the strategy — useful for governance and accountability, but signoff is generally a one-time event.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best tool for scanning uploaded files.
• C. Load balancer: Improves availability and distributes traffic but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may inspect HTTP requests, but malware scanning of uploaded PDFs is the key requirement here.

• D — Managers focus on keeping costs low in the short term to maximise profits.

• E — Managers are given incentives to meet or undercut budgets.

• F — Managers delegate responsibility simply to reduce their workload.

• Accept terms of use
• Enter a temporary code or credentials
• Provide basic registration information

• Enterprise authentication — Authenticates organizational users, often with centralized identity services; it is not specifically designed for temporary guest access.
• Ad hoc network — A temporary device-to-device network, not an authentication process.
• WPA3 — A wireless security standard. It protects Wi-Fi access but does not provide the web-based temporary access workflow described here.

• Distinct values = 69

• Unique values = 4

• MTTC: Time required to contain or limit the incident’s impact — best match.
• MTTR: Time required to remediate or recover from the incident; this may include eradication, restoration, and cleanup, which goes beyond merely stopping spread.
• MTTD: How long it takes to discover the incident.
• MTBF: Average time between failures, generally a reliability metric.

• IRR assumes that interim cash flows can be reinvested at the project’s own IRR. This may be unrealistic, especially when the IRR is very high.
• MIRR assumes reinvestment at a specified rate, usually the company’s cost of capital or another realistic reinvestment rate.

• B: MIRR does not specifically favour projects with long payback periods.
• C: MIRR and IRR can rank competing projects differently.
• D: MIRR is not always higher than IRR; it may be higher or lower depending on the cash flows and reinvestment rate.

• Training or coaching
• Mentoring
• Additional support or resources
• Targeted performance improvement plans

• A: Recognition may be appropriate, but awards do not address identified gaps.
• C: Rotating schedules does not necessarily improve the specific competencies that are missing.
• D: Assessment results should be handled sensitively, but keeping them entirely private prevents useful feedback and development discussions.

• Annual interest payments net of tax relief (A): future cash outflows for the issuer.
• Redemption value (B): the final cash outflow when the bond is redeemed.
• Market value now (C): the cash proceeds received now, acting as the initial cash flow in the IRR calculation.

• Crash cart: Provides local physical access, not remote access.
• Jump box: A secured intermediary used to reach devices over the normal network; it may be inaccessible if the appliance has not booted.
• Secure Shell (SSH): Requires the device’s operating system and network services to be running properly.

• A. IDS attack signatures: Detects suspicious network activity, but is not primarily designed to scan uploaded files for malware.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability; it does not inspect files for threats.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection, but its primary role is not malware scanning of uploaded documents.

• Group1 — security-enabled: Eligible.
• Group2 — mail-enabled and security-enabled: Eligible because it is still a security group.
• Group3 — Microsoft 365 group: Not eligible for group-based licensing.
• Group4 — Microsoft 365 group, not security-enabled: Not eligible.

• The requirement is an assessment of the Azure environment’s design, which requires a support plan offering proactive architectural guidance.
• Premier support would provide this capability, but it is a high-cost option.
• Since the requirement says to minimize expenses, Premier is not the best recommendation.
• A lower-cost plan with the required advisory/design-review capability—historically Professional Direct in Azure’s support-plan model—would be more appropriate.

• Base table — the table containing common inherited fields
• Parent table — the table directly extended by the child
• Other tables in the hierarchy

• NAT traversal: Helps WAN Edge, vSmart, and vManage devices discover how to reach one another through NAT.
• Initial orchestration: Authenticates and introduces devices when they first join the SD-WAN fabric.
• Connection brokering: Provides information that allows devices to form their required control connections, after which the vBond is generally not in the data path.

• WAN Edge: Forwards user traffic and forms secure tunnels.
• vSmart: Controls the overlay control plane and distributes routes and policies.
• vManage: Provides centralized management, configuration, and monitoring.

• Technical platform interfaces: Important for integration and interoperability, but they should support—not drive—the architecture.
• Scalability of the network: Valuable as the organization grows, but a scalable solution is ineffective if it does not meet business or security needs.
• Development methodologies: Relevant to implementation, but they do not define the organization’s fundamental security requirements.

• Suspended an operator who correctly refused to use unsafe equipment.
• Rewarded another operator for using the equipment despite the broken safety guard.

• A — Management is not particularly concerned with managing risks.

• B — Employees will perceive that management does not care about health and safety risks.

• C — This factory’s safety record is likely to be poor.

• Form layout
• Related lists
• Dictionary settings
• UI policies
• Client scripts
• Views and field visibility

• Personalization usually affects only the individual user.
• System configuration can affect other users, depending on its scope and conditions.

• Insert is used when you are creating a new record. It saves the record to the table and then leaves the form.
• Update is used when editing an existing record. It saves the modifications and then leaves the form.

• IKE (Internet Key Exchange) negotiates the IPsec security association, including:

• ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) protects the data after negotiation by providing encryption and optionally authentication.
• AH provides authentication and integrity but does not encrypt traffic.
• TLS is used for protocols such as HTTPS, not for negotiating IPsec parameters.

• A is correct: It establishes the revised dates and identifies the effect on the critical path.
• B is premature: Stakeholders should be informed after the impact has been assessed and the updated schedule is understood.
• C is not automatically appropriate: Fast-tracking may introduce additional risk and should be considered only after analyzing schedule options.
• D is premature: Adding resources may not resolve a dependency and could increase costs without addressing the actual constraint.

xml 
<apex:page> 
    <apex:stylesheet value="{!URLFOR($Resource.MyStyles, 'styles/main.css')}" /> 
</apex:page>

• <apex:includeScript> is for JavaScript.
• <apex:includeStyle> is not a valid Visualforce component.
• <apex:require> is not the Visualforce tag used to load CSS.

• SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): Commonly used for enterprise SSO between an identity provider and cloud applications. It sends signed authentication assertions to the service provider.
• RADIUS: Primarily used for centralized authentication to network devices, VPNs, and wireless networks.
• EAP: An authentication framework commonly used with network access technologies; it is not typically the SSO protocol for SaaS applications.
• OpenID: Related to identity authentication, but traditional enterprise SSO questions involving cloud applications generally expect SAML. OpenID Connect is a newer authentication layer built on OAuth 2.0.

• FTP — Transfers files using a client/server model and supports authentication. It uses separate control and data connections.
• TFTP — A very simple file-transfer protocol with no authentication and minimal features. Commonly used to transfer router or switch configuration files and IOS images.
• SCP — Securely copies files over SSH. It provides encryption and authentication.
• SFTP — Also transfers files securely through SSH, but provides more file-management capabilities than traditional SCP.
• HTTP/HTTPS — Primarily web protocols, but can also download files; HTTPS encrypts the session.

• TFTP = simple, unauthenticated file transfer
• FTP = file transfer with authentication, but not inherently encrypted
• SCP/SFTP = secure file transfer using SSH

• Reconnaissance: Gathering information about the target.
• Weaponization: Creating or combining a malicious payload with a delivery method.
• Delivery: Sending the payload, such as through phishing.
• Exploitation: Triggering a vulnerability or weakness to gain execution or access.

1. Clear principles and boundaries — Employees have freedom, but decisions must remain within clear organizational values, policies and limits.
2. High degree of freedom — Managers are trusted to make decisions rather than seeking continual approval from senior management.
3. Frontline customer responsibility — Customer-facing managers should be empowered to manage customer relationships and respond quickly to needs.
4. Transparent and ethical information — Information should be openly available and used honestly, supporting trust and informed decision-making.

• Controlar o fluxo de dados entre S3 e SageMaker;
• Aplicar regras de segurança por meio da VPC;
• Reduzir a exposição dos dados;
• Permitir acesso privado ao bucket do S3.

• Amazon Inspector: avalia vulnerabilidades, mas não gerencia o fluxo de dados.
• Amazon Macie: ajuda a descobrir e proteger dados sensíveis no S3, mas não cria a conexão com o SageMaker.
• S3 Glacier Deep Archive: é uma classe de armazenamento para arquivamento, não uma solução de conectividade.

Correct sequence

1. Merge Sales_Region with Sales_Manager using an inner join

1. Merge Region_Manager with Manager using an inner join

1. Merge Sales_Region and Region_Manager using a right join as a new query

1. insert con; ? 1
2. Database.setSavepoint(); ? 2
3. update con; ? 3
4. Database.rollback(sp_admin); ? 4

• SQL injection
• Cross-site scripting (XSS)
• Malicious or malformed web requests
• Some application-layer abuse

• Layer 4 firewall: Filters based mainly on IP addresses, ports, and connections; it lacks detailed web-request inspection.
• NGFW: Provides broader network security, but a WAF is more specialized for protecting web applications.
• UTM: Combines multiple security functions, but it is not necessarily optimized for web-application protection.

• Internal hostnames and subdomains
• Network structure and naming conventions
• Servers and services
• Relationships between systems

• Determining ISP-assigned address space: Usually involves external registration and DNS information, not internal host discovery.
• Bypassing DNS sinkholing: Would require evidence that malicious DNS requests avoided redirection.
• Initial access: DNS queries alone do not show that the attacker gained access.
• Exfiltrating data: DNS tunneling can do this, but the snippet would typically show encoded or unusually long DNS queries.

• Key-based authentication: Provides an endpoint secured with API keys.
• Real-time REST access: Supports online inference through an HTTP/REST endpoint.
• No VM vCPU quota consumption: Microsoft hosts and manages the underlying infrastructure, so your subscription’s VM quota isn’t used.

• Batch: Intended for asynchronous, large-volume processing rather than real-time requests.
• Self-hosted container: You manage the infrastructure and typically need compute resources and quota.
• Standard: This is not the clearest deployment type for the stated requirements; the specific Foundry option is serverless API.

• Firewall
• Intrusion prevention and detection
• Antivirus or antimalware
• Web and email filtering
• Virtual private networking (VPN)
• Sometimes content filtering and centralized reporting

• Customer information must not be revealed ? PII Detection
• Malicious instructions embedded in images/documents must be blocked ? Prompt Shields

• If the question allows multiple selections, choose PII Detection and Prompt Shields.
• If it requires one selection specifically for the image-based threat, choose Prompt Shields.

• Accept: Acknowledges the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Shifts the risk or financial impact to another party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reduces the likelihood or impact through controls like patching, MFA, or segmentation.
• Avoid: Eliminates the activity that creates the risk.

1. It examines the source MAC address and learns it on the incoming port.
2. It examines the destination MAC address.
3. If the destination MAC is already in the MAC/CAM table, it forwards the frame only through the associated port.
4. If the destination MAC is unknown, it performs unknown-unicast flooding:

• Red team: Simulates attackers and tests exploitability.
• Blue team: Defends, monitors, detects, and responds to attacks.
• Purple team: Combines red- and blue-team activities to improve cooperation and defenses.
• White team: Manages and oversees the rules, scope, and authorization of the exercise.

• Report on the discount approval time for quotes

• Dashboard of opportunity stage duration

• Lead conversion trends measure lead-generation effectiveness, not opportunity closing time.
• Campaign ROI evaluates marketing performance, not delays in the sales process.

• Deploy five individual VMs: This does not create a VM scale set.
• Modify Availability Zones or Size settings: These actions do not create the required scale set and add unnecessary steps.
• VM orchestration mode: This is Flexible orchestration, intended for more individually managed VMs and mixed configurations. It is not the best choice for a straightforward group of identical instances.

• Relationship cardinality:

• Filter direction:

• Active versus inactive relationships: only active relationships automatically propagate filters.
• Blank or unmatched values: a fact-table value without a matching dimension row can create the model’s blank/unknown member.
• Uniqueness: the “one” side must contain unique values; duplicate keys generally belong on the “many” side.

apex 
for (Account updatedAccount : Trigger.new) { 
    AccountTriggerHelper.notinyxternalSystem(updatedAccount.Id); 
}

• Too many callouts: The callout occurs asynchronously in the future method, and each future transaction can perform its permitted callouts.
• Too many SOQL queries: The SOQL query is inside the future execution, not repeatedly in the trigger transaction.
• Callout from triggers not supported: Direct callouts from triggers are prohibited, but the trigger delegates the callout to asynchronous Apex, which is the correct pattern.

• Preparing and managing datasets
• Building and training machine-learning models
• Testing and evaluating models
• Deploying models as endpoints for predictions

• Active remediation actions role in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint

• Security Reader role in Azure AD/Entra ID

• Security Administrator is broader than necessary because it grants extensive security-management permissions, violating least privilege.
• Compliance Data Administrator is intended for compliance data management, not Defender for Endpoint remediation approvals.