PMI RMP Exam Prep
PMI Risk Management Professional Exam (Page 22 )

• Deterrent control: The signs warn people they may be filmed. This can discourage unauthorized activity because individuals know surveillance is present.
• Detective control: CCTV monitors and records activity, helping identify or investigate incidents after—or while—they occur.

• Preventive: Stops an incident from occurring; CCTV generally does not physically prevent access.
• Corrective: Restores systems after an incident.
• Directive: Tells people what they must do, such as a security policy.
• Compensating: An alternative control used when the preferred control cannot be implemented.

• The JSON files contain one billion items, so this is a big-data workload.
• PySpark uses Apache Spark’s distributed, parallel processing, allowing the data to be processed across multiple compute nodes.
• It can read and transform data directly from OneLake, helping minimize unnecessary data movement or duplication.
• A Fabric notebook can also support exploration and visualization, as well as Spark-based analytics and anomaly-detection workflows.

• Pandas is primarily in-memory and generally suited to smaller datasets. One billion records would be impractical on a typical single machine.
• A Power BI report with core visuals is appropriate for visualization and sharing, but it is not the best tool for large-scale transformation, parallel processing, or anomaly detection. It would normally consume prepared data rather than perform the entire workload.

• A — Windows 11 with Azure CLI installed: Yes

• D — Chrome OS using Azure Cloud Shell: Yes

• E — Windows 10 with the Azure PowerShell module installed: Yes

• B — Linux with only Azure CLI: No, because the option does not state that PowerShell is installed.
• C — macOS with PowerShell Core only: No, because it does not state that Azure PowerShell modules or Azure CLI are installed.

• The server accepts unauthenticated image uploads, which creates an opportunity for an attacker to upload a malicious script disguised as an image or using an unexpected file type.
• A web shell is a malicious script placed on a web server that gives an attacker remote command execution through web requests.
• The suspicious process and outbound connection to a low-reputation IP are consistent with the attacker using the web shell to execute commands or establish communication with command-and-control infrastructure.

• Worm: Usually self-propagates across multiple systems; the scenario focuses on the upload page.
• Cryptocurrency mining: Possible, but there is no indication of resource-intensive mining activity or insider involvement.
• Rootkit Trojan over RDP: The evidence points to the vulnerable upload functionality, not an exposed RDP service.

• Rights issue: Raises new equity from existing shareholders. It does not increase debt or gearing, so it is least likely to breach the covenant.
• Retained earnings: Also equity finance, but the amount available may be insufficient for the required $800 million.
• Private placement of a bond: Creates additional debt and would worsen gearing, increasing the risk of breaching the covenant.
• Bank overdraft: Also debt finance, usually short-term and potentially expensive; it would still increase financial risk and gearing.

1. It examines the source MAC address and learns it on the incoming port.
2. It examines the destination MAC address.
3. If the destination MAC is already in the MAC/CAM table, it forwards the frame only through the associated port.
4. If the destination MAC is unknown, it performs unknown-unicast flooding:

• delta.logRetentionDuration
• delta.deletedFileRetentionDuration

• delta.deletedFileRetentionDuration controls how long physically deleted or obsolete data files are retained before they become eligible for removal by VACUUM. Set it to interval 30 days.
• delta.logRetentionDuration controls how long Delta transaction-log history is retained. Set it to interval 30 days to support audits and time travel for that period.

sql 
ALTER TABLE Catalog1.Schema1.Table1 
SET TBLPROPERTIES ( 
  'delta.logRetentionDuration' = 'interval 30 days', 
  'delta.deletedFileRetentionDuration' = 'interval 30 days' 
);

• Response and resolution time frames
• Availability or uptime requirements
• Performance targets
• Support obligations
• Penalties for failing to meet requirements

• SOW (Statement of Work): Defines the project’s scope, tasks, and deliverables.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Describes cooperation and responsibilities between parties.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a general mutual understanding, usually without detailed enforceable service targets.

• Authenticate to the domain
• Establish a secure relationship with domain controllers
• Receive Group Policy settings
• Access domain resources according to permissions

• LOB applications and SaaS applications are application services, not AD DS objects.
• Mobile devices are generally managed through Microsoft Intune and represented in Microsoft Entra ID rather than as traditional AD DS computer accounts.

• Deploy five individual VMs: This does not create a VM scale set.
• Modify Availability Zones or Size settings: These actions do not create the required scale set and add unnecessary steps.
• VM orchestration mode: This is Flexible orchestration, intended for more individually managed VMs and mixed configurations. It is not the best choice for a straightforward group of identical instances.

• Correct exam answer: A — HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
• The relevant location is associated with HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SAM.
• The SAM does not store passwords in plain text; it stores password hashes.

• HKEY_CURRENT_USER contains settings for the currently logged-in user, not the account-password database.
• HKEY_USERS contains user profiles and settings loaded for users.
• HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGURATION contains hardware/profile configuration information.

• Windows 11 Pro ? Windows 11 Enterprise
• Windows 10 Pro ? Windows 10 Enterprise

• A user connects with their Google account.
• Google associates the user’s SSH key with that identity.
• IAM roles determine whether they can log in.
• Access can be tied to a specific employee for auditing.
• Removing the IAM role removes their login access.

• compute.osLogin: regular OS login access
• compute.osAdminLogin: OS login with administrative privileges, typically including sudo

text 
enable-oslogin=TRUE

• Job Links ? URL ID: Mainly summarizes link performance; it is not the easiest place to retrieve individual email addresses by alias.
• Tracking Overview ? Clicks: Provides aggregate click metrics, not a targeted list for one aliased link.
• Click Activity ? Link View: Focuses on link-level reporting, but the question’s intended workflow for locating clicks tied to a specific placement/alias is Email Overlay.

• Customize Opportunity Contact Role
• Add the Opportunity Contact Role related list to the Opportunity page layout

• Root path cost
• Port priority
• Port ID

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/1 
 spanning-tree vlan 10 port-priority 64

• Interface number: Helps form the port ID but is not normally configured as the preference value.
• VLAN priority: Not used to select a preferred forwarding interface.
• Hello time: Controls how often BPDUs are sent; it does not select a preferred port.

• Admin access to the deployment pipeline
• Contributor access to the Development and Test workspaces
• Viewer access to the Production workspace

• Regression predicts continuous numeric outcomes, such as house price, temperature, or sales amount.
• Linear regression assumes the target can be estimated from a linear relationship between the input features and the target.
• In Azure Machine Learning, you use a labeled dataset containing:

• Classification predicts a category or class, such as “spam” or “not spam.”
• Clustering groups similar records without a known label; it is an unsupervised learning technique.

• A. IDS attack signatures: Detects suspicious network activity, but is not primarily designed to scan uploaded files for malware.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability; it does not inspect files for threats.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection, but its primary role is not malware scanning of uploaded documents.

• Honeypots are deliberately vulnerable or attractive systems designed to lure attackers. Legitimate users should not normally access them, so activity there can indicate a successful intrusion or lateral movement.

• A DNS sinkhole redirects requests for known malicious domains to a controlled internal system instead of the real destination. Security teams can monitor those requests and identify compromised devices attempting to contact command-and-control infrastructure.

• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens; it is a protection method, not an attacker-detection method.
• CI/CD: Automates software development and deployment processes.
• Threat modeling: Identifies potential threats during design and planning.
• Data obfuscation: Makes information harder to understand, but does not directly detect infiltrators.

• Sales revenue is affected because internal sales are recorded at the transfer price.
• Operating profit is affected because revenue changes while costs may remain unchanged.
• Return on investment (ROI) is affected because ROI depends on operating profit and the division’s investment.
• Cost of components purchased is not affected by the transfer price. These are costs incurred when buying components from external suppliers, not the internal price charged for the division’s output.

• Job compute isolates production pipelines from interactive development and terminates after the job completes.
• Autoscaling adds and removes workers during telemetry spikes, directly addressing bursty workloads.
• Photon can improve performance and reduce processing time, but it does not provide autoscaling, schema-drift handling, or exactly-once processing by itself.

• A — Shared compute: violates production isolation and can allow development workloads to affect ingestion.
• C — Larger fixed cluster: may improve capacity but cannot adapt efficiently to changing workloads.
• D — Disable autoscaling: directly conflicts with the requirement to handle telemetry spikes.

• Group1 — security-enabled: Eligible.
• Group2 — mail-enabled and security-enabled: Eligible because it is still a security group.
• Group3 — Microsoft 365 group: Not eligible for group-based licensing.
• Group4 — Microsoft 365 group, not security-enabled: Not eligible.

• httprint fingerprints Web servers by analyzing their HTTP responses. It can help identify the Web server type and sometimes its version, even when the banner has been modified or hidden.
• Wget is mainly used to download files or Web content.
• WinSSLMiM is associated with SSL man-in-the-middle testing.
• Whisker is an older Web-server vulnerability assessment tool, especially associated with IIS, rather than the expected banner-grabbing tool here.

• File hashes
• Strings and metadata
• Binary or code structure
• Known malicious patterns
• Embedded indicators or signatures

• Sandbox: Executes the file in an isolated environment; useful for observing behavior, but usually slower.
• Network traffic analysis: Examines communications generated by a system or application, not the file itself.
• Package monitoring: Tracks software packages or installations and is not the primary method for examining malware signatures.

• Namespace: The namespace associated with the code where the checkpoint was set.
• Time: When the checkpoint was captured or executed.

• Exception: Exceptions are viewed through debug logs or execution results, not as the primary Checkpoints tab information.
• Debug Statement: System.debug() output belongs in the Logs tab. A checkpoint captures program state, such as variables and their values, at a specific point in execution.

• Domain controllers, because the requirement specifically excludes them. However, note that both member servers and domain controllers run Windows Server, so OS targeting alone cannot distinguish them unless the targeting option allows selecting the relevant server role/version. In the usual exam interpretation, target the applicable server OS category.
• Client computers, because they run a client Windows operating system.

• Domain: Targets membership in a domain, not the computer’s operating-system type.
• Security Group: Would require creating and maintaining a group containing all member servers, increasing administrative effort.
• Environment Variable: Not designed to reliably identify member servers.

• Who owns security risks and decisions
• Who is responsible for implementing controls
• Who reports security performance to management
• How security responsibilities align with business objectives

• B — Compliance with audit requirements: Governance may support compliance, but audit compliance is not its main objective.
• C — Monitoring security incidents: This is an operational security activity, not the central purpose of governance.
• D — Creation of tactical solutions: Governance establishes direction and oversight; tactical solutions belong to management and operational teams.

• Standardize which services users can deploy
• Apply governance and access controls
• Manage approved product versions
• Give users self-service access to authorized resources

• AWS Control Tower: Sets up and governs a multi-account AWS environment.
• AWS Cloud Map: Provides service discovery for applications.
• AWS Clean Rooms: Enables privacy-preserving collaboration on data analysis.

Recommended process

1. Access each switch’s terminal.
2. Use help to identify available commands.
3. Use the MAC table command, such as:

text 
   show mac-address-table

1. Use VLAN information, such as:

text 
   show vlan

1. Use interface information, such as:

text 
   show ip interface brief

1. Record each device’s:

• Third-party attestation: Provides independent validation, but is typically periodic and performed by an external party.
• Penetration testing: Simulates attacks to identify exploitable vulnerabilities; it does not primarily track compliance.
• Vulnerability scans: Identify technical weaknesses, but do not provide a detailed review of procedures or compliance activities.

• Customers may boycott V’s products.
• Supermarket customers may stop buying from V.
• Investors may view V as having higher legal, ethical and reputational risk.
• V could face fines, lawsuits, contract losses and higher costs.
• Expected future profits may fall.

• SAS (Serial Attached SCSI):

• SSD (solid-state drive):

• IKE (Internet Key Exchange) negotiates the IPsec security association, including:

• ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) protects the data after negotiation by providing encryption and optionally authentication.
• AH provides authentication and integrity but does not encrypt traffic.
• TLS is used for protocols such as HTTPS, not for negotiating IPsec parameters.

• Preparing and managing datasets
• Building and training machine-learning models
• Testing and evaluating models
• Deploying models as endpoints for predictions

• terraform init is normally required first, especially for a new or changed working directory. It installs providers/modules and configures the backend.
• terraform plan previews the proposed changes.
• terraform apply applies those changes. It also creates a plan internally if you have not supplied a saved plan.

text 
terraform init 
terraform validate       # optional but recommended 
terraform plan 
terraform apply

• A — Capacity: The system must handle all current records and anticipated future records. A system that cannot cope with volume will quickly become ineffective.
• C — Accuracy: Academic records are critical, so the new system must be at least as accurate as the existing system and comparable systems. Poor accuracy could cause serious administrative and reputational problems.
• D — Integration: Linking with the university’s financial systems supports consistency and avoids duplicate data entry, especially for registration, deregistration and fee-related transactions.

• B — Parallel running: This is a useful implementation and risk-control technique, but it is not an essential feature of the system itself. It may also be expensive and time-consuming.
• E — Internet access for all information: This creates significant confidentiality and security risks. External access might be needed for selected services, but unrestricted access to all information is not essential and would be inappropriate for student records.

• Malware or malicious software
• Command-and-control tools
• Internet surveillance and intrusion software

• ITAR: A U.S. regulation controlling defense-related articles and services; it is not the international arrangement described.
• Palermo Convention: Focuses on transnational organized crime and related protocols, not export controls for cyber weapons.
• GDPR: European data-protection and privacy legislation.

• Note the question number before leaving—for example, Question 38.
• Use the exam’s question navigator or Back/Previous button to return to that number.
• If you close or refresh the page, your position may not be saved, depending on the site. Reopen the page and select the question number again.
• Avoid using the browser’s Back button if it causes the exam page to reload; use the exam’s built-in navigation instead.

• Formatting: May remove file-system references but often leaves recoverable data.
• Degaussing: Uses a magnetic field to erase data, but can damage or make magnetic drives unusable.
• Defragmentation: Rearranges data for performance; it does not securely erase information.

1. Wireless AP

1. Router

1. Firewall

1. Device placement

• B — AWS DataSync: Transfers data between storage systems. It is not a marketplace or integration service for third-party datasets.
• C — Kinesis Data Streams and CodeCommit: CodeCommit stores source code, not third-party analytical datasets. Kinesis is for streaming data, not retrieving datasets from repositories.
• D — Kinesis Data Streams and ECR: Amazon ECR stores container images, not third-party datasets.

• The Print Spooler is a Windows service.
• Services can have dependencies—other services that must be running first.
• If a dependency fails, the Print Spooler may repeatedly fail to start.
• In the Services tool, the technician can view the service’s Dependencies tab, start or restart services, and configure startup behavior.

• Processes: Shows currently running applications and processes.
• Startup: Controls which programs launch during Windows startup.
• Performance: Displays resource usage such as CPU, memory, disk, and network activity.

• Security groups
• Dynamic security groups
• Cloud-only or synchronized security groups

• Microsoft 365 groups
• Distribution groups
• Mail-enabled distribution groups

Why this is correct

• Each user authenticates with their own Google account.
• Google manages the user’s SSH key association.
• IAM controls who can access instances.
• Access can be audited by user identity, so security can determine who accessed a VM.
• Granting the role to a Google group avoids managing permissions individually.

Why the others don’t apply

• A: A shared private key is difficult to distribute securely and cannot reliably identify which employee used it.
• B: Manually collecting and deploying keys on every instance is operationally inefficient and complicates auditing.
• D: A project-wide shared key has the same identity and key-management problems as option A. It also does not provide per-user accountability.

• Products ? OrderHistory: Products is 1, OrderHistory is many (1:*)

• Date ? OrderHistory: Date is 1, OrderHistory is many (1:*)

1. System prompts can authorize users — No

1. System prompts can reduce TPM consumption — Yes, with qualification

1. System prompts guide generative AI behavior — Yes

Why C fits

• Kinesis Data Streams is designed to ingest a high-volume stream of transactions and support multiple consumers.
• AWS Lambda can read the stream, remove sensitive fields, and write the sanitized records to DynamoDB.
• Other applications can independently consume the same Kinesis stream.
• DynamoDB provides the required low-latency document-style retrieval.

Why A is wrong

• DynamoDB has no built-in “rule” that automatically removes sensitive data from every item on write.
• The transaction would first be stored in DynamoDB—potentially with sensitive data—before its stream event could be processed.
• DynamoDB Streams captures changes after DynamoDB writes; it is not the primary high-volume transaction-ingestion and transformation service in this design.
• The option does not provide a valid mechanism for sanitizing the data before storage.