PRINCE2 PRINCE2 Re-Registration Exam Prep
PRINCE2 Re-Registration (Page 21 )

• Base table — the table containing common inherited fields
• Parent table — the table directly extended by the child
• Other tables in the hierarchy

• Share of overall contribution: part of the organization’s total contribution is allocated to the supplying division.
• Dual pricing: the supplying division may record a higher transfer price while the receiving division records a lower price, with central accounts absorbing the difference.
• A centrally imposed price range: this may allow the transfer price to be set above variable cost, helping the supplying division recover fixed costs.

1. Install a Cassandra-compatible ODBC driver.
2. Configure a data source name (DSN), if required.
3. In Power BI Desktop, select Get Data > ODBC.
4. Choose the configured DSN and connect.

• Microsoft SQL Server database: Connects to SQL Server, not Cassandra.
• OLE DB: Requires a compatible OLE DB provider; this is not the standard choice for Cassandra in Power BI.
• OData: Requires Cassandra data to be exposed through an OData service, which is not the normal direct connection method.

• Menerjemahkan soal ke bahasa Indonesia.
• Menyebutkan jawaban yang benar.
• Menjelaskan alasan jawaban tersebut.
• Memberi tahu jika kunci jawaban yang tersedia tampaknya keliru.
• Menjelaskan istilah teknis penting dalam soal.

• Domain controllers, because the requirement specifically excludes them. However, note that both member servers and domain controllers run Windows Server, so OS targeting alone cannot distinguish them unless the targeting option allows selecting the relevant server role/version. In the usual exam interpretation, target the applicable server OS category.
• Client computers, because they run a client Windows operating system.

• Domain: Targets membership in a domain, not the computer’s operating-system type.
• Security Group: Would require creating and maintaining a group containing all member servers, increasing administrative effort.
• Environment Variable: Not designed to reliably identify member servers.

• A — Capacity: The system must handle all current records and anticipated future records. A system that cannot cope with volume will quickly become ineffective.
• C — Accuracy: Academic records are critical, so the new system must be at least as accurate as the existing system and comparable systems. Poor accuracy could cause serious administrative and reputational problems.
• D — Integration: Linking with the university’s financial systems supports consistency and avoids duplicate data entry, especially for registration, deregistration and fee-related transactions.

• B — Parallel running: This is a useful implementation and risk-control technique, but it is not an essential feature of the system itself. It may also be expensive and time-consuming.
• E — Internet access for all information: This creates significant confidentiality and security risks. External access might be needed for selected services, but unrestricted access to all information is not essential and would be inappropriate for student records.

• A is correct: It establishes the revised dates and identifies the effect on the critical path.
• B is premature: Stakeholders should be informed after the impact has been assessed and the updated schedule is understood.
• C is not automatically appropriate: Fast-tracking may introduce additional risk and should be considered only after analyzing schedule options.
• D is premature: Adding resources may not resolve a dependency and could increase costs without addressing the actual constraint.

• A valid input returns the expected result
• An invalid input raises an error
• Boundary values are handled correctly

• B: Copilot may help generate tests, but it does not automatically write all necessary tests.
• C: Writing the implementation does not verify that it works correctly.
• D: Copilot can suggest test commands or test code, but the developer or development environment must execute and validate the tests.

• Espionage: Stealing information for intelligence or competitive purposes.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: A sophisticated attack sponsored by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or access methods used by employees.

• ARP poisoning: Redirects or intercepts local network traffic; monitoring would typically show suspicious ARP changes or man-in-the-middle behavior.
• Jamming: Interferes with wireless or radio signals. It would affect connectivity, not usually show a server-specific overload.
• Kerberoasting: Attempts to obtain and crack Kerberos service-account hashes; it does not normally cause a system outage.

• A — Correct: Flow Builder is declarative and visual, so administrators and other non-developers can participate in designing and improving business processes without writing Apex.
• D — Correct: Flow Builder provides visual debugging tools, allowing an admin to test paths, inspect variable values, and identify where a specific business case fails.
• E — Correct: A flow’s visual structure documents the logic and makes later maintenance easier than reading and updating custom Apex code.

• B — Incorrect: Flow debugging does not attach a debugger to live customer sessions. The admin uses Flow Builder’s debug functionality with test inputs; this is not live-session debugging and should not be used to monitor real customer transactions.

• Azure Cosmos DB is a globally distributed NoSQL database service. It stores and retrieves application data, but it does not provide the complete environment for building, testing, and deploying predictive analytics models.
• Azure Machine Learning is the appropriate service for this requirement. It supports creating experiments, training and testing models, and deploying them for predictions.
• Azure Machine Learning Studio provides the browser-based interface for these tasks.

• The identified risk
• Its likelihood and potential impact
• The person or team responsible for handling it
• The response or treatment plan
• Risk thresholds, such as when escalation or action is required
• Current status and review dates

• Risk tolerance: The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept; it is a concept or limit, not usually the primary documentation.
• Risk transfer: Moving the responsibility or financial impact of a risk to another party, such as through insurance.
• Risk analysis: The process of evaluating risk likelihood and impact.

• Understating expenses and liabilities
• Overstating profit
• Misleading users of the financial information
• Potentially breaching integrity, objectivity, and professional competence and due care

• Asynchronous inference is designed for applications that submit individual inference requests, place them in a queue, and retrieve results later. It is useful when requests may take a long time or when traffic is intermittent.
• Batch transform is designed specifically to run inference over an entire large dataset stored in Amazon S3 and produce an output dataset.

• Large dataset/offline processing ? Batch transform
• Large or slow individual requests processed later ? Asynchronous inference

• The listener uses a virtual IP address shared by the availability-group replicas.
• Floating IP, also called Direct Server Return (DSR), allows the SQL Server nodes to respond using the listener’s IP address rather than their individual VM IP addresses.
• This is required for the availability-group listener to function correctly with an Azure internal load balancer.

• The vulnerability scan identifies a vulnerability.
• The administrator verifies that the vulnerability is not present.
• Therefore, the scan produced a false positive.

• True positive: A vulnerability is reported and genuinely exists.
• False negative: A vulnerability exists, but the scan fails to detect it.
• True negative: No vulnerability exists, and the scan correctly reports no issue.

• Internal interface ? connected toward the corporate network/internal firewall
• External interface ? connected toward the Internet-facing firewall

1. A route for the internal corporate network through the internal-facing interface/firewall.
2. A default route (0.0.0.0/0) through the Internet-facing interface/firewall.

Statement 1 — Correct

Statement 2 — Correct

• Behavioral and anomaly detection
• Threat intelligence integration
• User and entity behavior analytics
• Automated response actions, often through SOAR integration

• Virus signatures: Associated primarily with antivirus or endpoint protection.
• Security agent deployment: Usually an endpoint-management or EDR function.
• Vulnerability scanning: Typically performed by vulnerability-management tools, though a SIEM may integrate their results.

• Business
• People
• Governance
• Platform
• Security
• Operations

• Cloud financial management
• Portfolio management
• Data governance
• Risk management
• Compliance

• A is incorrect: Flow Debugger is for debugging Salesforce Flows, not Trust Layer masking.
• B is incomplete/misleading: Requesting audit data may be part of reviewing the results, but collection and storage must first be enabled.
• C is correct: It describes the initial validation step.

• Configure row-level security (RLS) using the sales region and the HR manager’s identity.
• Publish the reports and datasets through a Power BI app.
• Grant the HR managers permission to use the app, but do not add them as workspace members.
• App users can view and interact with reports while RLS limits them to their region.
• They cannot modify the report layout because they do not have workspace editing permissions.

• Adding them to the workspace gives them workspace permissions that may allow report or dataset changes, depending on the assigned role.
• Creating copies is unnecessary and creates maintenance and security problems.
• Hosting datasets and reports in different workspaces does not, by itself, provide the required controlled access.

• Transport and handling
• Storage and warehousing
• Refrigeration
• Shelf-stacking or replenishment
• Other costs directly attributable to product P

• An Adj-SID does not necessarily need manual configuration.
• It can often be dynamically allocated by the router, although manual configuration may also be possible.
• The adjacency information is advertised through the IGP, such as IS-IS or OSPF.

• It is identified by an Adj-SID.
• It represents a particular adjacency of a node.
• Its meaning is generally local to the advertising node; unlike a Node-SID, it is not a globally reusable instruction across the network.

• Employees can use approved devices from remote locations or worldwide offices.
• Users do not need to carry or insert extra hardware.
• It helps prevent account takeovers from unknown devices.

• Geotagging: Restricts access based on location, which could interfere with remote work and travel.
• Smart cards: Require additional physical equipment and card readers.
• Time-based logins: Limit access according to time but do not strongly bind access to an authorized user device.

• Assign endpoints to a group based on the result of one policy.
• Use that group as the scope of another policy.
• This effectively passes the endpoints from one policy’s processing flow to another.

• A — Use getRecordTypeInfosByDeveloperName()

apex 
  Id rtId = Schema.SObjectType.Account 
      .getRecordTypeInfosByDeveloperName() 
      .get('Business_Account') 
      .getRecordTypeId();

• C — Query the RecordType object

apex 
  RecordType rt = [ 
      SELECT Id 
      FROM RecordType 
      WHERE SObjectType = 'Account' 
      AND Name = 'Business Account' 
      LIMIT 1 
  ];

• B: An outbound SOAP call is unnecessary and inefficient.
• D: Hardcoding an ID is not dynamic, and IDs can differ between orgs.

• The current and previous versions
• Which clauses were changed
• When each revision occurred
• Potentially, who made the changes

• Version validation: Verifies a version’s accuracy or integrity but does not primarily track revisions.
• Version changes: Not the standard name for a formal document-management process.
• Version updates: Describes updating a document, not the complete process of managing and tracking its revisions.

Why this is correct

• Each user authenticates with their own Google account.
• Google manages the user’s SSH key association.
• IAM controls who can access instances.
• Access can be audited by user identity, so security can determine who accessed a VM.
• Granting the role to a Google group avoids managing permissions individually.

Why the others don’t apply

• A: A shared private key is difficult to distribute securely and cannot reliably identify which employee used it.
• B: Manually collecting and deploying keys on every instance is operationally inefficient and complicates auditing.
• D: A project-wide shared key has the same identity and key-management problems as option A. It also does not provide per-user accountability.

• CHAP: Uses a challenge-response exchange, so the password is not directly transmitted.
• IPsec: Provides authentication, integrity, and encryption for IP communications.
• EAP: An authentication framework that supports stronger methods, such as certificates or token-based authentication.

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 
 encapsulation dot1Q 3

• .10 is the router’s local subinterface number.
• dot1Q 3 identifies the 802.1Q VLAN tag carried on the trunk.

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 
 encapsulation dot1Q 3

text 
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.2 
 encapsulation dot1Q 2

• Error correction (ECC): Improves data reliability but does not maximize bandwidth.
• RAM voltage: Increasing voltage may affect stability or speed, but it is not the primary method for increasing module bandwidth.
• Physical module size: Refers to the capacity or form factor of the RAM, not its data-transfer bandwidth.

• Training or coaching
• Mentoring
• Additional support or resources
• Targeted performance improvement plans

• A: Recognition may be appropriate, but awards do not address identified gaps.
• C: Rotating schedules does not necessarily improve the specific competencies that are missing.
• D: Assessment results should be handled sensitively, but keeping them entirely private prevents useful feedback and development discussions.

• Microservices: An application design approach that divides software into small services; it does not specifically reduce the number of operating systems.
• Containerization: Uses isolated containers that share the host OS kernel—best match.
• Virtualization: Creates separate virtual machines, and each typically requires its own guest OS, so it does not minimize OS instances as effectively.
• Infrastructure as code: Automates deployment and management of infrastructure; it does not describe the architecture being used.

apex 
Set<Id> accountIds = new Set<Id>{ accountId1, accountId2 }; 


List<Account> accounts = [ 
    SELECT Id, Name 
    FROM Account 
    WHERE Id IN :accountIds 
];

• A: LIMIT accepts a number, not a collection of IDs.
• B: Set.containsAll() checks set contents in Apex; it does not filter SOQL results.
• C: Database.query() accepts a dynamic SOQL string, not a Set<Id> directly.

• D — Managers focus on keeping costs low in the short term to maximise profits.

• E — Managers are given incentives to meet or undercut budgets.

• F — Managers delegate responsibility simply to reduce their workload.

• Threat perspective: Focuses on possible attacks, but may seem technical or hypothetical.
• Compliance perspective: Can motivate action, but compliance alone does not demonstrate the broader business value of governance.
• Policy perspective: Policies are important, but they are a means of implementing governance, not its primary business justification.

• B. Deploy to a SageMaker endpoint: This is needed for SageMaker-hosted models, not for a model intended to be used directly in Amazon Bedrock.
• C. Register with SageMaker Model Registry: SageMaker Model Registry is unrelated to invoking custom models in Bedrock.
• D. Grant access in Bedrock: Access permissions may be necessary, but they do not replace the required provisioned capacity.

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Shifting responsibility or financial impact to another party, such as through insurance or outsourcing.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact of the risk through controls.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity or condition that creates the risk.

1. The specific table — for example, incident
2. The parent table — for example, task
3. The wildcard table — *, which applies broadly

• vBond — orchestration plane: Authenticates devices, helps them discover each other, and assists with NAT traversal and initial control-connection setup.
• vSmart — control plane: Distributes routing and policy information to WAN Edge devices using the overlay control plane.
• vManage — management plane: Provides centralized configuration, monitoring, and orchestration through its GUI/API.
• WAN Edge — data plane: Forwards user traffic across the SD-WAN fabric.

• Tactics: The attacker’s overall goal, such as gaining persistence or exfiltrating data
• Techniques: The methods used to achieve that goal
• Procedures: The specific implementation or sequence of actions

• IP addresses and hash values: Useful indicators, but they can change quickly.
• Indicators of compromise: TTPs may help identify IOCs, but their main value is describing behavior.
• Tools: Attackers can replace tools or use legitimate administrative utilities.

• Wireshark captures packets and allows you to examine their contents, potentially revealing usernames and passwords sent without encryption.
• Netcat creates network connections and can send or receive data, but it is not primarily a packet-analysis tool.
• Nessus scans for known vulnerabilities and configuration issues; it generally would not prove that credentials are visible in transit.
• Nmap performs network discovery and port/service scanning, not detailed packet-content inspection.

• Red team: Simulates attackers; exploits weaknesses to test security.
• Blue team: Defends systems; monitors, detects, and responds to attacks.
• Purple team: Combines red- and blue-team efforts to improve detection and defense.
• White team: Oversees or manages the test, defining rules, scope, and authorization.

• 16GB RAM: A 64-bit OS is needed to use more than roughly 4GB effectively, but RAM capacity does not prove the CPU supports 64-bit operation.
• 500GB HDD: Storage capacity has no bearing on OS architecture.
• 1Gbps Ethernet: Network speed is unrelated to CPU architecture.

apex 
for (Account updatedAccount : Trigger.new) { 
    AccountTriggerHelper.notinyxternalSystem(updatedAccount.Id); 
}

• Too many callouts: The callout occurs asynchronously in the future method, and each future transaction can perform its permitted callouts.
• Too many SOQL queries: The SOQL query is inside the future execution, not repeatedly in the trigger transaction.
• Callout from triggers not supported: Direct callouts from triggers are prohibited, but the trigger delegates the callout to asynchronous Apex, which is the correct pattern.

• Prevention costs – costs incurred to stop defects occurring, such as staff training, quality planning and supplier evaluation.
• Appraisal costs – costs of checking whether products meet standards, such as inspection, testing and quality audits.
• Internal failure costs – costs of defects found before delivery to customers, such as scrap, rework and retesting.
• External failure costs – costs of defects found after delivery, such as warranty claims, returns, complaints and product recalls.

• Keep earlier prompt versions.
• Identify the last version that produced acceptable output.
• Restore it as a baseline.
• Make small, controlled changes—ideally one significant change at a time.
• Test the output after each change.

• A: Discards useful information about what worked.
• B: Large simultaneous changes make it difficult to identify the cause of problems.
• D: Accepts output that does not meet the requirements.

Question 3: AWS Storage Gateway File Gateway

• A: S3 bucket per user — S3 is object storage, not a traditional shared file system; mounting it requires extra tools and is less efficient.
• B: File Gateway — Provides a local file share using standard file protocols while storing files in Amazon S3. This preserves convenient local access and extends storage capacity.
• C: WorkSpaces and WorkDocs — Designed for virtual desktops and document collaboration, not large shared file storage.
• D: EC2 with EBS — EBS is attached to one EC2 instance and is not designed for direct multi-user file sharing.