Salesforce Sales-Admn-202 Exam Prep
Salesforce Certified CPQ Administrator (Page 11 )

• Microsoft manages the physical datacenter, hardware, and virtualization.
• You manage the virtual machine’s operating system, installed software, configuration, and data.
• You choose the VM size, storage, networking, and scaling options.

• SaaS: You consume a complete application managed by the provider, such as Microsoft 365.
• PaaS: You deploy applications without managing the underlying operating system or VM infrastructure, such as Azure App Service.

• VLAN 10 for data
• VLAN 20 for voice

• A: Describes physical trunking or logical switch ports, not an SVI.
• B: An SVI can provide management access, but that is only one use—not the best description here.
• D: SVI use is not related to running out of physical ports.

1. Search & Intelligence in the Microsoft 365 admin center — No

1. Audit in the Microsoft Defender portal — Yes

1. Audit in the Microsoft Purview portal — Yes

• Existing Eventhouse data: remains available only in the KQL database.
• Data ingested after enabling the feature: is copied to OneLake and can be accessed through OneLake file explorer.
• New databases: are irrelevant; the setting applies to the selected KQL database.

• B. Versioned configuration files — Infrastructure is defined in machine-readable files and tracked in version control, allowing repeatable provisioning and change history.
• D. Docker files — Assuming “Doctor files” is a typo for Dockerfiles, a Dockerfile declaratively defines how to build a container image and is commonly considered infrastructure/configuration as code.

• A. Cloned virtual machine images — These are prebuilt infrastructure artifacts, but cloning an image is not itself a code-based infrastructure definition.
• C. Change management database records — A CMDB records information about infrastructure; it does not define or provision that infrastructure.

• Box 1: No — The rule requires user.department to equal Engineering. Engineer does not match, so User1 is not in AU1. Admin1 cannot reset User1’s password.
• Box 2: No — Admin1’s role is scoped to AU1 and cannot manage users outside that AU.
• Box 3: Yes — Admin2 is a Global Administrator and can reset User3’s password.

• A static IP gives the surveillance system a predictable local address, so users can reliably reach it on the LAN.
• However, a static IP does not block internet-based login attempts. If the router exposes the device through port forwarding, attackers could still reach it.
• Port mapping normally exposes an internal service externally, so A is a poor choice as written.
• Subnetting alone also does not block traffic; it would require routing/firewall rules.

• B: Extending credit to customers increases receivables, so more cash is tied up in working capital.
• C: Replacing obsolete inventory does not reduce the overall inventory investment; it simply changes its composition.
• D: Paying suppliers earlier reduces payables. This uses cash and therefore increases the funds tied up in working capital.

• STIX: A standardized format for exchanging cyber-threat intelligence.
• OVAL: A language and framework for describing and assessing system vulnerabilities and configuration issues.
• Threat intelligence feed: Provides current indicators or threat information, but is not specifically a reference for common application exploitation techniques.
• CVE: A catalog of publicly disclosed vulnerabilities, identified by unique CVE numbers.

• Annual interest payments net of tax relief (A): future cash outflows for the issuer.
• Redemption value (B): the final cash outflow when the bond is redeemed.
• Market value now (C): the cash proceeds received now, acting as the initial cash flow in the IRR calculation.

• Design Studio > Emails ? create an email-template folder
• Design Studio > Landing Pages ? create a landing-page-template folder
• Add the relevant assets to each folder
• Right-click the folder and choose Share Folder
• Select the destination workspaces

• Fine-tuning requires a properly formatted training dataset.
• For classification or instruction-style fine-tuning, examples are supplied in JSONL format.
• Each line represents one training example, typically containing the input prompt and the desired completion or label.
• The file must then be uploaded or made available to the Microsoft Foundry fine-tuning workflow.

• A: Prompt Flow is useful for prompt experimentation, but it is not required to start fine-tuning.
• B: You do not need to deploy the base model to an online endpoint before fine-tuning.
• C: Tracing supports observability and evaluation, but it does not prepare the fine-tuning job or dataset.

• A — Windows 11 with Azure CLI installed: Yes

• D — Chrome OS using Azure Cloud Shell: Yes

• E — Windows 10 with the Azure PowerShell module installed: Yes

• B — Linux with only Azure CLI: No, because the option does not state that PowerShell is installed.
• C — macOS with PowerShell Core only: No, because it does not state that Azure PowerShell modules or Azure CLI are installed.

• Enforce organizational rules, such as allowed regions or required tags
• Audit resources for compliance
• Deny noncompliant deployments
• Aggregate compliance results across subscriptions

• Data source: Folder
• Transformation: Remove the Content column (or keep only the file-metadata columns)

Why

• File name
• Extension
• Date modified
• Folder path
• Content — the binary contents of the file

• Attack simulator — Used to run phishing and other attack simulations for user awareness training.
• Hunting — Used to proactively query security data and investigate potential threats.
• Incidents — Used to investigate and manage related alerts and active security events.

• A — .gitignore: Controls Git tracking; it does not configure Copilot exclusions.
• B — copilot.ignore: This is not the standard GitHub Copilot Business exclusion mechanism.
• D — Renaming files: Adding _no_copilot has no recognized effect.

• Menerjemahkan soal ke bahasa Indonesia.
• Menyebutkan jawaban yang benar.
• Menjelaskan alasan jawaban tersebut.
• Memberi tahu jika kunci jawaban yang tersedia tampaknya keliru.
• Menjelaskan istilah teknis penting dalam soal.

• Two-part tariff pricing: $10 per unit
• Dual pricing: $20 per unit

Two-part tariff pricing

Dual pricing

• Division X, the seller, is credited with the market price: \(\$20\)
• Division Y, the buyer, is charged the marginal cost: \(\$10\)

• File hashes
• Strings and metadata
• Binary or code structure
• Known malicious patterns
• Embedded indicators or signatures

• Sandbox: Executes the file in an isolated environment; useful for observing behavior, but usually slower.
• Network traffic analysis: Examines communications generated by a system or application, not the file itself.
• Package monitoring: Tracks software packages or installations and is not the primary method for examining malware signatures.

Why this is correct

• Each user authenticates with their own Google account.
• Google manages the user’s SSH key association.
• IAM controls who can access instances.
• Access can be audited by user identity, so security can determine who accessed a VM.
• Granting the role to a Google group avoids managing permissions individually.

Why the others don’t apply

• A: A shared private key is difficult to distribute securely and cannot reliably identify which employee used it.
• B: Manually collecting and deploying keys on every instance is operationally inefficient and complicates auditing.
• D: A project-wide shared key has the same identity and key-management problems as option A. It also does not provide per-user accountability.

• Domínios personalizados.
• Armazenamento suficiente.
• Instâncias dedicadas.
• Balanceamento de carga.
• Menor custo entre os planos que atendem a tudo.

• AB’s own PPE: $100m
• CD’s PPE in its individual accounts: $50m
• Fair value uplift at acquisition: $40m
• Remaining useful life: 10 years
• Extra depreciation each year: $40m ÷ 10 = $4m
• Four years’ extra depreciation to 31 December 20X4: 4 × $4m = $16m
• Remaining fair value uplift: $40m - $16m = $24m

1. The specific table — for example, incident
2. The parent table — for example, task
3. The wildcard table — *, which applies broadly

• A. IDS attack signatures: Detects suspicious network activity, but is not primarily designed to scan uploaded files for malware.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability; it does not inspect files for threats.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection, but its primary role is not malware scanning of uploaded documents.

• SQL injection
• Cross-site scripting (XSS)
• Malicious or malformed web requests
• Some application-layer abuse

• Layer 4 firewall: Filters based mainly on IP addresses, ports, and connections; it lacks detailed web-request inspection.
• NGFW: Provides broader network security, but a WAF is more specialized for protecting web applications.
• UTM: Combines multiple security functions, but it is not necessarily optimized for web-application protection.

• Espionage: Stealing confidential information, often for a competitor or foreign entity.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: A cyberattack sponsored or conducted by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or services used outside IT oversight.

• Azure Cosmos DB is a globally distributed NoSQL database service. It stores and retrieves application data, but it does not provide the complete environment for building, testing, and deploying predictive analytics models.
• Azure Machine Learning is the appropriate service for this requirement. It supports creating experiments, training and testing models, and deploying them for predictions.
• Azure Machine Learning Studio provides the browser-based interface for these tasks.

• Initial Intrusion: The compromised VPN account and stolen phishing credentials describe how the attacker first gained access, but that happened months earlier.
• Persistence: The scheduled tasks and recurring C2 connections show how the attacker maintained and automated continued access.
• Search and Exfiltration: This would involve locating and transferring data. The scenario does not primarily describe data discovery or theft.
• Cleanup: Cleanup involves removing evidence or covering tracks. Obfuscated scripts may make detection harder, but the main behavior here is maintaining access.

• A. PsFile — Correct: Displays files opened remotely on a system. This reveals shared resources and user activity.
• B. UserInfo — Correct: Gathers information about user accounts, supporting account and privilege enumeration.
• C. PsPasswd — Answer key lists it: This is questionable. PsPasswd is primarily used to change passwords remotely, not enumerate information. The key may classify it broadly as a Windows account-management tool, but it is not a strong enumeration example.
• D. WinSSLMiM — Incorrect: Used for SSL man-in-the-middle activity, not enumeration.

• B — Data source settings in Power BI Desktop:

• D — Formula bar in Power Query Editor:

m 
  Excel.Workbook(File.Contents("new path"))

• E — Advanced Editor in Power Query Editor:

• A: Dataset settings in the Power BI service mainly handle credentials and gateway settings, not changing the local file path embedded in the PBIX.
• C: Current File data-load settings control refresh/load behavior, not the source location.

• Plenum: Describes a fire-resistant cable jacket rating, not a transmission medium or speed.
• Ethernet: Describes a networking technology; Ethernet can use copper or fiber, so the term alone does not identify the fastest cable type.
• DAC (Direct Attach Copper): Uses copper and is typically intended for short-distance, high-speed connections in data centers.

• A local network gateway represents an on-premises network—its address space and VPN device information—for an Azure Site-to-Site VPN connection.
• It does not control which connection types are allowed between Azure web servers and database servers.
• It is also unnecessary when both server groups are in the same Azure virtual network.

• Business
• People
• Governance
• Platform
• Security
• Operations

• Sustainability
• Performance efficiency
• Reliability

• A class/teacher fact should contain one row per Class ID. It can support the count of classes and contain attributes such as Teacher First Name and Period Number.
• An attendance fact should contain one row per attendance event, such as Class ID + student + date. It supports attendance counts by day and monthly averages.

• Teacher First Name ? Teacher fact
• Period Number ? Attendance fact

• Marketing users: Dynamic Forms can show all fields.
• Support users: Field visibility rules can display only the Support preference fields on the record page.
• Reporting: Both profiles can still report on all fields because Dynamic Forms controls page visibility, not the underlying field access.

• A — Two record types and page layouts: Page layouts can control field placement and editability, but they are less flexible for conditional field visibility and would not be the best fit here.
• C — Muting permission set: Permission-set muting is used with permission-set groups; it does not conditionally hide fields on a page.
• D — Field-Level Security: FLS would remove field visibility at the security level. If fields are hidden by FLS, users generally cannot report on or access those fields, conflicting with the requirement that both users report on all data.

• Reduce the training data: Usually makes overfitting worse.
• Add hyperparameters: Hyperparameters already control training; simply adding them does not solve the problem. Proper tuning could help, but that is not what the option states.
• Increase training time: More training can worsen overfitting if the model is already memorizing the training data.

• Disable default accounts: Default or unused accounts may have known usernames or predictable settings, making them targets. They should be disabled, removed, or securely configured.
• Remove unnecessary services: Every running service creates potential vulnerabilities. Removing services the server does not need reduces exploitable entry points.

• Add the server to the asset inventory: Important for asset management, but not a hardening step.
• Document default passwords: Default passwords should be changed or eliminated—not documented for continued use.
• Send server logs to the SIEM: Valuable for monitoring and detection, but generally performed as part of logging/monitoring configuration.
• Join the server to the corporate domain: May be necessary operationally, but does not itself harden the server.

• Row counts
• Minimum and maximum values for columns
• Distinct-value information
• Other characteristics used for optimization

• Help the team identify the root causes of delays.
• Empower the team to improve its workflow and practices.
• Facilitate removal of impediments.
• Avoid directing the team toward a solution without its involvement.
• Protect quality and sustainable delivery rather than simply accelerating everything.

• A: An impediment log may help, but merely recording problems does not empower the team to solve them.
• B: Directing the team to solutions conflicts with self-management.
• C: Adding impediments to the product backlog may incorrectly treat internal obstacles as product features and delays their resolution.

• Data Cloud combines data from multiple systems.
• It resolves and organizes that data into a unified customer view.
• That unified view enables downstream actions such as personalized campaigns, segmentation, analytics, and activation.

• A = core platform value
• D = a resulting business use case or benefit

• Standardize which services users can deploy
• Apply governance and access controls
• Manage approved product versions
• Give users self-service access to authorized resources

• AWS Control Tower: Sets up and governs a multi-account AWS environment.
• AWS Cloud Map: Provides service discovery for applications.
• AWS Clean Rooms: Enables privacy-preserving collaboration on data analysis.

• The requirement is to obtain an assessment of the Azure environment’s design.
• The proposed solution is the Premier support plan.
• Premier can provide this type of guidance, but it is a higher-tier, more expensive option.
• The question specifically says to keep costs to a minimum. A lower tier—typically Professional Direct in the support-plan model used by this question—provides architectural/design guidance.

• Endpoint Manager: manages hosts and sensor-related settings.
• Falcon Investigator: supports investigation and analysis, but does not necessarily grant RTR access.
• Remediation Manager: handles remediation-related actions rather than interactive host access.

• SQL injection
• Cross-site scripting (XSS)
• Malicious or malformed web requests
• Some application-layer attacks

• Layer 4 firewall: Filters based mainly on IP addresses, ports, and transport protocols; it cannot deeply inspect web application content.
• NGFW: Provides advanced network filtering and may include application awareness, but a WAF is more specifically designed to protect web applications.
• UTM: Combines several security functions in one appliance, but it is not the most targeted solution for a web portal.

• Lead investigator: Coordinates the investigation and directs the response.
• Information security representative: Provides security expertise and helps assess the incident.
• Technical representative: Preserves system evidence, takes forensic backups, and supports technical analysis.
• Legal representative: Advises on legal, regulatory, privacy, and evidence-handling requirements.

• Domain controllers, because the requirement specifically excludes them. However, note that both member servers and domain controllers run Windows Server, so OS targeting alone cannot distinguish them unless the targeting option allows selecting the relevant server role/version. In the usual exam interpretation, target the applicable server OS category.
• Client computers, because they run a client Windows operating system.

• Domain: Targets membership in a domain, not the computer’s operating-system type.
• Security Group: Would require creating and maintaining a group containing all member servers, increasing administrative effort.
• Environment Variable: Not designed to reliably identify member servers.