Salesforce Sales-Admn-202 Exam Prep
Salesforce Certified CPQ Administrator (Page 16 )

• Identified risks
• Risk owners or responsible parties
• Likelihood and impact
• Risk response plans
• Current status
• Risk thresholds or trigger conditions

• Risk tolerance: The amount and type of risk an organization is willing to accept; it is not primarily a tracking document.
• Risk transfer: Moving the financial or operational impact of a risk to another party, such as through insurance or outsourcing.
• Risk analysis: The process of evaluating a risk’s likelihood and impact.

• D — Value analysis: Correct. It examines an existing product to identify ways of reducing its cost while still providing the required functions, quality and reliability.
• E — Kaizen costing: Correct. It involves making continuous, small improvements and cost reductions while the product is already in production.

• Functional analysis: It is not limited to minimizing the cost of the originally defined functions. It examines what functions are required and how they can be provided at the lowest overall cost.
• Value engineering: Usually applies to the design and development of a new product, rather than being a fundamental redesign of existing organisational processes. That description is closer to business process re-engineering.
• Target costing: The target cost is generally established during the product development stage, before production begins. It is not continuously reset while the product is in production.

• Accept: Acknowledge the risk and choose not to take additional action.
• Transfer: Shift the risk or its financial impact to another party, such as through insurance or outsourcing.
• Mitigate: Reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk, such as by implementing security controls.
• Avoid: Eliminate the activity or condition that creates the risk.

1. Create or verify cost groups

1. Set up the item model group

1. Create the costing version

1. Enter or calculate item costs

1. Activate the standard costs

• Prevent connections to malware command-and-control servers
• Identify infected systems making those DNS requests
• Collect information for incident response

• A: Attackers do not normally use sinkholes to map a company’s domain structure.
• B: Redirecting employees from legitimate sites to attacker-owned sites describes malicious DNS manipulation, not a defensive sinkhole.
• D: Attracting attackers away from real resources is more closely associated with a honeypot or deception system.

• A: Describes a broad purpose and direction, but is not the specific CIMA definition.
• C: “Scoping out” activities is too vague and incomplete.
• D: Combines long-term goals, strategies and policies, but describes a wider strategic-planning statement rather than the definition of strategy itself.

• Install unauthorized or unapproved applications
• Access system areas normally restricted
• Add features unavailable in the default software
• Modify the device’s operating system

• SQL injection (SQLi): Attacks databases by inserting malicious SQL commands.
• Cross-site scripting (XSS): Injects malicious scripts into web pages viewed by users.
• Sideloading: Installs an application from outside the official app store, but it does not necessarily remove the phone’s operating-system restrictions.

• B. The community must be built with the Customer Account Portal template.

• C. An experience ID (expid) or placeholder parameter must be used in the URL.

• A: The Visualforce + Salesforce Tabs template does not provide this dynamic branding capability.
• D: An external CMS is not required. The branding configuration is handled within Salesforce Experience Cloud.

• Scheduling overlapping working hours for critical collaboration
• Assigning independent tasks that can proceed asynchronously
• Adding clear handoffs between offices
• Documenting decisions, questions, and required inputs
• Building appropriate time into the schedule for responses

text 
heartrateheartrateheartrate

• Spark column objects can be multiplied, for example:

python 
  df["heartrate"] * 3

• A DataFrame itself cannot be multiplied, but the expression is referring to a column.
• It is also not primarily a Python syntax error; the code was parsed, then Spark failed while resolving the column name.

• Replaces the verbal message — this describes non-verbal communication being used instead of words.
• Substitutes for verbal communication — similar; it means communicating without speech.
• Confuses the verbal message — this occurs when non-verbal signals contradict or obscure the spoken message.

• A: Using an external OAuth 2.0 identity provider could provide unified identity, but it does not specifically address Salesforce capacity or high-volume login limits.
• B: Making the Experience Cloud community a SAML identity provider and using JIT provisioning is a possible federation pattern, but it may not be appropriate for this scale without Salesforce validation.
• C: A default account is unrelated to solving identity unification and high login throughput. Person Accounts can be supported in appropriate B2C Commerce integrations.

• B. Deploy to a SageMaker endpoint: This is needed for SageMaker-hosted models, not for a model intended to be used directly in Amazon Bedrock.
• C. Register with SageMaker Model Registry: SageMaker Model Registry is unrelated to invoking custom models in Bedrock.
• D. Grant access in Bedrock: Access permissions may be necessary, but they do not replace the required provisioned capacity.

• An Azure pay-as-you-go subscription follows an operational expenditure (OpEx) model.
• With OpEx, the organization pays for services as they are used, typically based on consumption.
• There is no need to purchase and maintain physical servers upfront.
• This contrasts with capital expenditure (CapEx), where the company makes a significant upfront investment in infrastructure, such as on-premises Hyper-V hosts.

• AWS AppSync is designed for serverless applications that need to retrieve and combine data from multiple sources.
• A pipeline resolver can invoke multiple functions or data-source resolvers, including resolvers connected to different DynamoDB tables.
• The application can receive the combined result through one GraphQL request, without requiring custom aggregation logic in the application.
• This is operationally efficient because AppSync manages the API layer and resolver execution.

• Athena Federated Query is intended primarily for analytics and ad hoc querying, not low-latency application data retrieval.
• Querying DynamoDB through Athena can consume DynamoDB read capacity and may affect table performance.
• It also introduces analytical-query overhead and is not the normal choice for a microservice web application.

• C: Develop the rule in the Rules Editor, define the events, match, and condition sections, then use the test rule feature. This directly validates the YARA-L rule without enabling it in production.
• A: UDM Search can help investigate data and refine filters, but it does not fully test YARA-L logic—especially complex event joins, match windows, and conditions.

• A — Too infrequent: Formal strategies are often reviewed only every three to five years. This can make the organisation slow to respond to rapid changes in technology, competitors, regulation or customer needs.

• C — Relies on predicting the future: The approach assumes senior managers can make reasonably reliable forecasts and assumptions. In uncertain environments, these assumptions may quickly become invalid.

• E — Can restrict radical innovation: Formal planning tends to favour existing information, established objectives and incremental improvements. This may discourage experimental or highly innovative strategies that emerge from lower levels of the organisation.

• B concerns the difficulty of achieving competitive advantage through core competences when competing with focused specialists. It is not specifically a drawback of the formal top-down planning process.
• D is an activity organisations should undertake—continuous monitoring—not a drawback of the approach itself.

• T?o m?t Systems Manager Automation runbook d? ch?y l?nh kh?i d?ng l?i ?ng d?ng trên các EC2 instance.
• T?o m?t Amazon EventBridge rule ph?n ?ng khi CloudWatch alarm chuy?n sang tr?ng thái ALARM.
• Ð?t Automation runbook làm target c?a EventBridge rule.

1. Log c?a ?ng d?ng du?c ghi vào CloudWatch Logs.
2. CloudWatch alarm phát hi?n nhi?u l?i liên quan d?n vi?c restart.
3. Alarm chuy?n sang tr?ng thái ALARM.
4. EventBridge nh?n s? ki?n thay d?i tr?ng thái này.
5. EventBridge g?i Systems Manager Automation runbook.
6. Runbook restart ?ng d?ng trên các EC2 instance, không restart c? instance.

• A: SNS không tr?c ti?p g?i Systems Manager Automation runbook nhu m?t target native.
• B: Lambda có th? th?c hi?n vi?c restart, nhung ph?i t? x? lý vi?c xác d?nh instance và ch?y l?nh t? xa.
• C: Lambda ch? làm trung gian d? g?i runbook, không c?n thi?t vì EventBridge có th? g?i runbook tr?c ti?p.

• Which host first communicated with the suspected malicious source
• Whether that host initiated suspicious traffic or merely received it
• Which other hosts show evidence of infection, such as connections from the originating host
• Which hosts have no related suspicious activity and are therefore clean

• An outbound connection to a suspicious external address
• A downloaded or executed malicious file
• Later lateral connections from that host to other internal systems
• Firewall logs showing the direction and timing of the traffic

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact through controls, such as patching or employee training.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity or condition that creates the risk.
• Transfer: Shifting the consequences—usually financial—to another party, such as an insurer.

• Financial performance
• Customer perspective
• Internal business processes
• Learning and growth

• Increasing the number of indicators can make the scorecard cluttered and less useful. Measures should be limited to those that are strategically important.
• The scorecard is mainly a tool for implementing and monitoring strategy, not for formulating strategy.
• It should contain both leading indicators and lagging indicators. Leading indicators predict future performance, while lagging indicators measure results already achieved.

• C — Custom buttons display at the top and bottom of a page: Correct. In Salesforce Classic, buttons can appear in the page’s button areas, including the top and bottom of record pages.
• D — Custom buttons are available for Person Accounts: Correct. Person Accounts use the Account object, so Account custom buttons can be available on Person Account layouts.
• E — Custom buttons can reference an external app: Correct. A URL custom button can launch or navigate to an external application or website.

• A: JavaScript custom buttons are a Salesforce Classic feature and are not supported in Lightning Experience. They do not enhance Lightning Experience.
• B: The User object does not generally support custom buttons in the same way standard business objects do.

• NIDS: Monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and network-based attacks targeting the application or its supporting services.
• HIPS: Protects an individual host by monitoring processes, files, and system activity. It can help secure the web server, but it is not focused specifically on the application’s network attack surface.
• SIEM: Aggregates and correlates logs; it does not directly prevent attacks.
• Honeypot: A decoy system, not the primary protection for a production web application.
• Certificate revocation list: Deals with certificate trust, not application exploitation.

• Accept: Acknowledging the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Shifting the risk’s impact to a third party, such as through insurance or outsourcing.
• Mitigate: Reducing the likelihood or impact of the risk through security controls.
• Avoid: Eliminating the activity or process that creates the risk.

• ADF: Automatic Document Feeder; a printer/scanner hardware component.
• USB: A short-range wired connection, not a protocol for accessing a remote shared folder.
• PCL: Printer Control Language; it describes how print jobs are formatted, not how files or printers are shared over a network.

• Continuous deployment: Automates software releases; it does not specifically test input handling.
• Static code analysis: Examines source or compiled code without executing it. It can find coding flaws but does not directly stress the application with malformed inputs.
• Manual peer review: Developers inspect code or design manually. Useful, but not the best practice specifically for testing how a live product handles invalid input.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents for malware.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability, but does not inspect files for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications against attacks such as SQL injection and command injection. It may help secure the upload function, but malware scanning is the key requirement here.

Correct reasoning

• Create storage5 as a General-purpose v2 (StorageV2) account.
• Configure Blob object replication from storage5 to an existing compatible storage account.
• The destination must support object replication—typically another StorageV2 or premium block blob account.
• Blob versioning must be enabled on both accounts.
• Blob change feed must be enabled on the source account.
• The accounts must meet Azure’s object-replication requirements, including being in supported regions and having compatible configuration.

• A — Correct: Flow Builder is declarative and visual, so administrators and other non-developers can participate in designing and improving business processes without writing Apex.
• D — Correct: Flow Builder provides visual debugging tools, allowing an admin to test paths, inspect variable values, and identify where a specific business case fails.
• E — Correct: A flow’s visual structure documents the logic and makes later maintenance easier than reading and updating custom Apex code.

• B — Incorrect: Flow debugging does not attach a debugger to live customer sessions. The admin uses Flow Builder’s debug functionality with test inputs; this is not live-session debugging and should not be used to monitor real customer transactions.

• Documented and formally requested
• Analyzed for security, cost, and operational impact
• Reviewed and approved by the appropriate personnel
• Tested before implementation
• Tracked and reversible if problems occur

• Risk management process: Identifies and evaluates risk, but does not directly authorize design changes.
• Product design process: Applies primarily while creating or developing the product.
• Design review process: May have identified the issues, but the next step for changing an already released design is controlled change management.

• What information each stakeholder needs
• When and how often it should be communicated
• Which format or channel should be used
• Who is responsible for communicating it

• A: The team should not decide stakeholder communications without first checking the established plan and CEO’s needs.
• B: An executive summary may be appropriate, but choosing a solution before reviewing the plan is premature.
• D: The stakeholder engagement plan addresses how to engage stakeholders, but this is primarily a communication planning issue.

• Valor maior: mais aderência às instruções e aos detalhes descritos.
• Valor menor: mais liberdade criativa e resultados potencialmente mais variados.
• Valor excessivamente alto: pode causar artefatos ou imagens menos naturais.

• Aumentar o número de passos de geração: pode melhorar qualidade e refinamento, mas não é o principal controle de especificidade do prompt.
• MASK_IMAGE_BLACK: relaciona-se ao uso de máscara em geração ou edição de imagens, não à especificidade textual.
• Prompt strength: é mais associado à força do prompt em processos como image-to-image; nesta questão, o parâmetro diretamente ligado à aderência textual é o CFG scale.

• Open or insecure ports
• Enabled legacy or insecure protocols
• Known vulnerabilities and misconfigurations
• Weak services and outdated software

• curl tests web requests and HTTP-based services.
• Wireshark captures and analyzes network traffic; it does not normally scan servers for weaknesses.
• netcat can test connectivity to individual ports and sometimes grab service banners, but it is not a comprehensive vulnerability scanner.

• Compare each server’s drive specifications and performance data.
• Identify the drive that is faulty, slow, or mismatched.
• Replace it with a drive that matches the required interface, capacity, and performance characteristics.
• Avoid selecting a slower drive, because storage performance can bottleneck the entire server.
• In a redundant array, use a compatible replacement so rebuilding does not create unnecessary performance degradation.

• A: Allow SAN certificates — SANs are used to identify valid hostnames in a certificate. They do not bypass trust validation.
• C: Open the secure LDAP port — A blocked port would normally cause a timeout or connection-refused error, not certificate errors.
• D: Increase the TLS version on the RA — The issue concerns certificate trust, not the organization’s registration authority.

1. Define Power Platform DLP policies

1. Add custom prompt modifications

1. Conduct adversarial testing

1. Create a temporary Onboarding OU.
2. Move the new account into it.
3. Move the restrictive SCPs from the organization root to the Production OU.
4. Allow the account to update AWS Config.
5. Move the account into Production after onboarding.

• An SCP attached at the organization root applies to every account and OU beneath it.
• An SCP attached to the Production OU applies only to accounts in that OU.
• Therefore, moving the restrictive SCP from the root to Production temporarily exempts the onboarding account without weakening the policies for existing production accounts.
• Once onboarding is complete, moving the account into Production subjects it to the normal restrictions.

• Transfer — przeniesienie skutków lub kosztów ryzyka na inna organizacje, np. przez ubezpieczenie lub umowe.
• Akceptacja — firma swiadomie przyjmuje ryzyko bez dodatkowych dzialan.
• Mitigacja — zmniejszenie prawdopodobienstwa wystapienia ryzyka lub jego wplywu, np. przez wdrozenie kontroli bezpieczenstwa.
• Unikanie — calkowite wyeliminowanie ryzykownej dzialalnosci.

Statement 1 — Correct

Statement 2 — Correct

• Domínios personalizados.
• Armazenamento suficiente.
• Instâncias dedicadas.
• Balanceamento de carga.
• Menor custo entre os planos que atendem a tudo.

• Secret scope: A named container that groups related secrets and defines access permissions. Example: finance-prod.
• Secret key: The name of an individual secret stored inside that scope. Example: db-password.

text 
Scope: finance-prod 
  Key: db-username 
  Key: db-password

python 
dbutils.secrets.get( 
    scope="finance-prod", 
    key="db-password" 
)

• Internal interface ? connected toward the corporate network/internal firewall
• External interface ? connected toward the Internet-facing firewall

1. A route for the internal corporate network through the internal-facing interface/firewall.
2. A default route (0.0.0.0/0) through the Internet-facing interface/firewall.

• Database data: Aggregates are used to retrieve structured data, commonly from entities and database sources.
• Screen scope: A Screen Aggregate belongs to the screen where it is defined and is not directly reusable as a screen-level aggregate elsewhere.
• Asynchronous and parallel execution: Multiple Screen Aggregates can run asynchronously and in parallel, helping the screen load data efficiently.

• ARP poisoning: Redirects or intercepts local network traffic; monitoring would typically show suspicious ARP changes or man-in-the-middle behavior.
• Jamming: Interferes with wireless or radio signals. It would affect connectivity, not usually show a server-specific overload.
• Kerberoasting: Attempts to obtain and crack Kerberos service-account hashes; it does not normally cause a system outage.

• VLAN 10 for data
• VLAN 20 for voice

• A: Describes physical trunking or logical switch ports, not an SVI.
• B: An SVI can provide management access, but that is only one use—not the best description here.
• D: SVI use is not related to running out of physical ports.

1. insert con; ? 1
2. Database.setSavepoint(); ? 2
3. update con; ? 3
4. Database.rollback(sp_admin); ? 4

• Data loss prevention (DLP): Helps detect or prevent unauthorized data transfers, but does not directly protect data on a stolen, powered-off laptop.
• Operating system hardening: Reduces vulnerabilities and attack surface, but does not adequately protect stored data if the device is stolen.
• Boot security: Helps prevent unauthorized operating systems or boot media from loading. It supports device security but is not the primary solution for protecting the data itself.

• GPS coordinates
• Date and time the image was taken
• Camera or device information
• Image dimensions and software used

• Log data: Records generated by systems or applications, not normally embedded in image files.
• Encrypted data: Information intentionally encoded to prevent unauthorized access.
• Sensitive data: A broad classification, not the specific type of information being extracted.