Test Prep CFA-Level-I Exam Prep
CFA® Level I Chartered Financial Analyst (Page 45 )

Correct reasoning

• Create storage5 as a General-purpose v2 (StorageV2) account.
• Configure Blob object replication from storage5 to an existing compatible storage account.
• The destination must support object replication—typically another StorageV2 or premium block blob account.
• Blob versioning must be enabled on both accounts.
• Blob change feed must be enabled on the source account.
• The accounts must meet Azure’s object-replication requirements, including being in supported regions and having compatible configuration.

• SQL injection
• Cross-site scripting (XSS)
• Malicious or malformed web requests
• Some application-layer attacks

• Layer 4 firewall: Filters based mainly on IP addresses, ports, and transport protocols; it cannot deeply inspect web application content.
• NGFW: Provides advanced network filtering and may include application awareness, but a WAF is more specifically designed to protect web applications.
• UTM: Combines several security functions in one appliance, but it is not the most targeted solution for a web portal.

• Create the field in the CRM on the relevant person records—typically Lead and Contact in Salesforce.
• Give the Marketo Sync User read/write access to the field.

Correct sequence

1. Merge Sales_Region with Sales_Manager using an inner join

1. Merge Region_Manager with Manager using an inner join

1. Merge Sales_Region and Region_Manager using a right join as a new query

• B. Versioned configuration files — Infrastructure is defined in machine-readable files and tracked in version control, allowing repeatable provisioning and change history.
• D. Docker files — Assuming “Doctor files” is a typo for Dockerfiles, a Dockerfile declaratively defines how to build a container image and is commonly considered infrastructure/configuration as code.

• A. Cloned virtual machine images — These are prebuilt infrastructure artifacts, but cloning an image is not itself a code-based infrastructure definition.
• C. Change management database records — A CMDB records information about infrastructure; it does not define or provision that infrastructure.

• C. Case after-insert trigger that publishes a Platform Event

• D. Custom Apex controller that publishes a Platform Event

• A. Trigger with a callout: Salesforce triggers should not make direct synchronous callouts, and this tightly couples transaction processing to the external system.
• B. Workflow Rule with Outbound Message: This can react to record changes, but it cannot reliably capture a user clicking a menu item. It also does not provide the same flexible event-driven model as Platform Events.

• No servers or database infrastructure to provision.
• Uses standard SQL.
• Supports formats such as JSON, CSV, Parquet, and ORC.
• You typically define the table structure with AWS Glue Data Catalog or Athena’s own schema definitions.
• Charges are generally based on the amount of data scanned, so partitioning and columnar formats can reduce cost.
• It does not copy the data into a separate database; it reads the files in S3 when you run a query.

• Marketing users: Dynamic Forms can show all fields.
• Support users: Field visibility rules can display only the Support preference fields on the record page.
• Reporting: Both profiles can still report on all fields because Dynamic Forms controls page visibility, not the underlying field access.

• A — Two record types and page layouts: Page layouts can control field placement and editability, but they are less flexible for conditional field visibility and would not be the best fit here.
• C — Muting permission set: Permission-set muting is used with permission-set groups; it does not conditionally hide fields on a page.
• D — Field-Level Security: FLS would remove field visibility at the security level. If fields are hidden by FLS, users generally cannot report on or access those fields, conflicting with the requirement that both users report on all data.

• IDS attack signatures: Primarily detects suspicious network activity; it is not the best control for scanning uploaded documents.
• Load balancer: Distributes traffic and can improve availability, but does not inspect files for malware.
• WAF: Helps block web attacks such as command injection and SQL injection, but it is not primarily a malware-scanning solution.

• terraform init is normally required first, especially for a new or changed working directory. It installs providers/modules and configures the backend.
• terraform plan previews the proposed changes.
• terraform apply applies those changes. It also creates a plan internally if you have not supplied a saved plan.

text 
terraform init 
terraform validate       # optional but recommended 
terraform plan 
terraform apply

• The users currently have Office 365 Enterprise E3 licenses assigned directly.
• Assigning Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 through a group does not automatically remove their directly assigned E3 licenses.
• From the Licenses blade, you can select the E3 product and remove it from all assigned users in one operation. This requires less effort than editing 2,500 users individually.

• Identity Governance manages access reviews, entitlement management, and related governance—not bulk license removal.
• Set-AzureAdUser does not remove product licenses.
• Set-WindowsProductKey applies Windows product keys and is unrelated to Microsoft 365 licensing.

• miami.weyland.com requires a custom domain, which is not available in the Free tier.
• Two instances require a tier that supports scaling out. Standard supports multiple instances.
• SSL support is available in Standard.
• 12 GB of storage exceeds the storage limit of the Basic tier in the older Azure pricing model used by this question.
• Standard provides sufficient storage and features while being cheaper than higher tiers—though higher tiers are not listed here.

• Free/Shared: insufficient features for custom domains, SSL, and multiple instances.
• Basic: supports some production features, but its storage capacity is insufficient for the required 12 GB.

• Extracted text and images
• Page numbers and bounding polygons for citation or grounding
• Structured tables, including tables that continue across multiple pages
• Document structure such as sections and figures

• Document Extraction: Extracts basic text and images, but does not provide the full layout and structural metadata required here.
• Azure Content Understanding in Foundry Tools: A broader content-analysis service, not the single built-in Azure AI Search skill expected by this question.
• GenAI Prompt: Can transform or interpret content but does not inherently produce reliable document geometry and page-level polygons.

• Penetration test: Tests for exploitable vulnerabilities; it does not provide a broad opinion on whether security controls operate effectively.
• Annual self-assessment: Not independent, so it provides less assurance.
• Allow each client the right to audit: Inefficient because every customer may conduct a separate audit, creating duplicated effort and disruption.

• Liability accounts (2000–2999) would incorrectly require dimensions, although they should have none.
• Expense accounts (6000–6998) would incorrectly require Customer, which should be optional.
• Account 6999 needs a separate rule because it requires all four dimensions, including Customer.

• 2000–2999: no dimensions
• 4000–4999: Department and Division required; Project and Customer optional
• 6000–6998: Department, Division, and Project required; Customer optional
• 6999: Department, Division, Project, and Customer required

• Crowd-sourced evaluation: Requires recruiting and managing many evaluators.
• Human-worker evaluation: Provides human judgment but requires coordination, labeling instructions, and quality control.
• RLHF: Is a training and alignment process, not simply a low-overhead model comparison method.
• Automatic model evaluation: Quickly evaluates outputs using predefined toxicity or quality metrics with minimal manual effort.

• Note the question number before leaving—for example, Question 38.
• Use the exam’s question navigator or Back/Previous button to return to that number.
• If you close or refresh the page, your position may not be saved, depending on the site. Reopen the page and select the question number again.
• Avoid using the browser’s Back button if it causes the exam page to reload; use the exam’s built-in navigation instead.

• Customers may boycott V’s products.
• Supermarket customers may stop buying from V.
• Investors may view V as having higher legal, ethical and reputational risk.
• V could face fines, lawsuits, contract losses and higher costs.
• Expected future profits may fall.

• IRR assumes that interim cash flows can be reinvested at the project’s own IRR. This may be unrealistic, especially when the IRR is very high.
• MIRR assumes reinvestment at a specified rate, usually the company’s cost of capital or another realistic reinvestment rate.

• B: MIRR does not specifically favour projects with long payback periods.
• C: MIRR and IRR can rank competing projects differently.
• D: MIRR is not always higher than IRR; it may be higher or lower depending on the cash flows and reinvestment rate.

• Attack simulator — Used to run phishing and other attack simulations for user awareness training.
• Hunting — Used to proactively query security data and investigate potential threats.
• Incidents — Used to investigate and manage related alerts and active security events.

• The CSV contains the external users’ email addresses.
• The bulk invitation feature supports inviting many guest users in one operation.
• Each invited user becomes a guest account in contoso.com.

1. The specific table — for example, incident
2. The parent table — for example, task
3. The wildcard table — *, which applies broadly

• A hypervisor allows multiple virtual machines to run on one physical server.
• Each VM can have its own operating system, so the customer can consolidate Windows, Linux, and Unix servers.
• A Type 2 hypervisor runs on a host operating system and can be deployed on local hardware, helping address data privacy and avoiding ongoing public-cloud charges.

• Containers share the host operating system’s kernel.
• They are well suited to consolidating applications, but they generally cannot independently run a mix of unrelated kernels such as Windows, Linux, and Unix on one host.

• VPC: A logically isolated virtual network within a cloud provider; it describes network design, not the user-access model.
• NFV: Runs network services as software instead of on dedicated hardware.
• SaaS: Delivers software over the internet. Although the application may be delivered as SaaS, the question emphasizes its availability to multiple user groups, which points to multitenancy.

• A. Periodically rotate responsibilities: May reduce some risks, but it does not directly detect unauthorized changes.
• B. Review segregation-of-duties conflicts: Identifies incompatible access combinations, not whether a specific data change was unauthorized.
• C. Log changes in an outside application: Logs provide evidence, but someone must review and analyze them. Logging alone does not detect misuse.
• D. Independent review: Directly detects unauthorized changes and reduces the risk that the person making the change can conceal it.

• AB’s own PPE: $100m
• CD’s PPE in its individual accounts: $50m
• Fair value uplift at acquisition: $40m
• Remaining useful life: 10 years
• Extra depreciation each year: $40m ÷ 10 = $4m
• Four years’ extra depreciation to 31 December 20X4: 4 × $4m = $16m
• Remaining fair value uplift: $40m - $16m = $24m

• Security
• Availability
• Processing integrity
• Confidentiality
• Privacy

• Whether controls are suitably designed, and
• Whether they operated effectively over a period of time

• Honeypots: Decoy systems designed to attract attackers. Legitimate users should not access them, so activity there is a strong indication of unauthorized access.
• DNS sinkholes: Redirect requests for known malicious domains to a controlled internal destination instead of the real attacker infrastructure. Security teams can then identify infected systems making those requests.

• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens; it protects data but does not detect intruders.
• CI/CD: Software development and deployment processes.
• Threat modeling: Identifies potential threats before or during system design, rather than detecting successful infiltration.
• Data obfuscation: Makes information harder to understand, but is not an attacker-detection mechanism.

• The underside clips or hinges are broken.
• The cap is stuck, loose, or misaligned.
• The cap no longer presses the switch correctly.
• The cap itself is missing or physically damaged.

• Honeypots are deliberately vulnerable or attractive systems designed to lure attackers. Legitimate users should not normally access them, so activity there can indicate a successful intrusion or lateral movement.

• A DNS sinkhole redirects requests for known malicious domains to a controlled internal system instead of the real destination. Security teams can monitor those requests and identify compromised devices attempting to contact command-and-control infrastructure.

• Tokenization: Replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens; it is a protection method, not an attacker-detection method.
• CI/CD: Automates software development and deployment processes.
• Threat modeling: Identifies potential threats during design and planning.
• Data obfuscation: Makes information harder to understand, but does not directly detect infiltrators.

• Case Assignment Rules normalmente são avaliadas quando o caso é criado. Elas podem ser executadas novamente em uma edição somente se o usuário marcar “Assign using active assignment rules”; isso não acontece automaticamente apenas porque o caso foi fechado.
• Portanto, criar uma regra de atribuição não corrige os centenas de casos já fechados e não garante, por si só, que um caso será transferido antes de ser fechado.

• B — Usar uma ferramenta de dados: corrige os registros históricos já existentes, atualizando o Owner.
• D — Criar uma regra de validação: impede que um caso seja fechado enquanto ainda pertence a uma fila. Exemplo conceitual: se Status = Closed e o proprietário for uma fila, bloquear o salvamento.

• Active-active routers: Provide redundant Internet connections/devices. Both can operate, so traffic can fail over or be load-balanced.
• Active-active firewalls: Avoid a single firewall becoming a failure point while maintaining security inspection.
• Load balancers: Distribute requests across multiple web servers. If one server fails, traffic can go to the other.
• Redundant power supplies: A server with separate power supplies should connect to independent power sources or circuits.
• UPS A and UPS B: Provide backup power and redundancy. Ideally, each power supply is connected to a different UPS.
• SONET ring: A ring topology provides alternate paths if a fiber link or segment fails.

1. Append Table1 and Table2 as a new query

1. Select the product column in the appended query.

1. Choose Remove Rows > Remove Duplicates

• netstat -tuln can show listening TCP ports.
• If the web service is not listening, or is bound only to 127.0.0.1, remote browsers cannot connect even though the server responds to ping.

• traceroute: Tests the path to the server, but ping already confirms basic reachability.
• tcpdump: Useful for detailed packet analysis, but it is more appropriate after checking whether a service is listening.
• arp: Helps troubleshoot local IP-to-MAC resolution, not an application-layer web connection.

• A. Adjust resolution: Incorrect because an incompatible resolution usually causes no display, distortion, or an unsupported-mode message—not intermittent flickering.
• B. Swap the HDMI cable: Correct. Replacing the common, easily tested component is the appropriate troubleshooting step.
• C. Replace the projector: Incorrect because the issue also occurs with a monitor.
• D. Configure refresh rate: A mismatched refresh rate can cause visual problems, but the repeated flicker across displays points more strongly to the cable.

1. Initiation

1. Planning

1. Execution

1. Monitoring and controlling

1. Closing

• Microsoft Foundry is an enterprise platform for developers, data scientists, and IT teams.
• It supports the full AI application lifecycle: selecting models, connecting enterprise data, developing, evaluating, deploying, monitoring, and scaling solutions.
• It can include visual tools and low-code experiences, but it is not primarily designed to enable business users to build complete generative AI solutions independently.

• B: You still need to select and configure an appropriate model.
• C: Business users may participate through visual tools, but they are not the primary target audience.
• D: Foundry includes low-code tools, but it is not fundamentally a low-code-only platform.

• Set credit quotas for an account or individual virtual warehouses.
• Define monitoring intervals.
• Trigger actions when usage reaches thresholds, such as sending notifications or suspending a warehouse.
• Help control unexpected warehouse spending.

• Account Usage: Provides historical usage and billing data; it does not enforce credit limits.
• Warehouse Limit Parameter: Not the Snowflake object used for account-wide credit controls.
• Credit Consumption Tracker: Not a standard Snowflake object.

• Normal or expected input
• Boundary values
• Invalid input
• Potential error conditions

• A is incorrect: it creates test code, not detailed test documentation.
• C is incorrect: it does not primarily integrate external testing frameworks.
• D is incorrect: executing tests requires your development environment or test runner.

• Structure requirements documents
• Draft user stories and acceptance criteria
• Create templates for functional and nonfunctional requirements
• Turn natural-language descriptions into organized documentation or implementation examples

• A: “Automatically generating detailed requirements documents” overstates Copilot’s role; it assists but does not independently determine complete requirements.
• C: /help provides guidance about Copilot features, not reliable requirements-conflict detection.
• D: Stakeholder communication and meetings remain human responsibilities.

• STP elects the switch with the lowest Bridge ID as the root bridge.
• The Bridge ID consists mainly of bridge priority + MAC address.
• If multiple switches have the same priority, the switch with the lower MAC address is preferred.
• STP bridge priority values are configured in increments of 4096, such as 0, 4096, 8192, and so on. 32768 is the standard default value.

• Customer information must not be revealed ? PII Detection
• Malicious instructions embedded in images/documents must be blocked ? Prompt Shields

• If the question allows multiple selections, choose PII Detection and Prompt Shields.
• If it requires one selection specifically for the image-based threat, choose Prompt Shields.

• 10 minutes have elapsed, or
• 20 MB of accounting data has accumulated

• Virus signatures: Primarily associated with antivirus or antimalware tools.
• Security agent deployment: Usually handled by endpoint-management or endpoint-security platforms.
• Vulnerability scanning: Performed by vulnerability-assessment tools, although a SIEM may ingest their results.

• Recovery Services vault — stores Site Recovery configuration and recovery metadata.
• Hyper-V site — represents the on-premises Hyper-V environment.
• Azure virtual network — the target network where the replicated VM will run after failover. Since Azure VMs already use the same virtual network, that VNet can be selected as the target.
• Storage account or managed-disk target, depending on the ASR configuration and portal version.
• Provider/agent on the Hyper-V server — enables replication from Hyper-V to Azure.

Why this is correct

• Each user authenticates with their own Google account.
• Google manages the user’s SSH key association.
• IAM controls who can access instances.
• Access can be audited by user identity, so security can determine who accessed a VM.
• Granting the role to a Google group avoids managing permissions individually.

Why the others don’t apply

• A: A shared private key is difficult to distribute securely and cannot reliably identify which employee used it.
• B: Manually collecting and deploying keys on every instance is operationally inefficient and complicates auditing.
• D: A project-wide shared key has the same identity and key-management problems as option A. It also does not provide per-user accountability.

• A — Tables
• B — Named file formats
• C — Schemas
• E — Databases

Why these are correct

• Tables: Can be cloned using CREATE TABLE ... CLONE. The clone initially uses zero-copy cloning, so storage is shared until changes are made.
• Named file formats: Can be cloned as database objects, preserving the file-format definition.
• Schemas: A schema and its eligible objects can be cloned.
• Databases: A database and its eligible schemas and objects can be cloned.

Why the others are incorrect

• Shares: A share is an account-level data-sharing object, not a normal cloneable database object.
• Users: Users are security principals and cannot be cloned with CLONE.

• Identity: User-assigned managed identity

• Authorization: Azure RBAC

• Measurement bias: Errors in how features or labels are measured, such as unreliable camera data or inconsistent labeling.
• Observer bias: A human evaluator’s subjective judgment influencing observations or labels.
• Confirmation bias: Favoring information that supports an existing belief.