600-455 Exam Discussions & Posts
gw2fjrocha
Commented on April 12, 2026
Question 11:
- In Question 11, the statements are about three AI ethics principles: transparency, privacy, and inclusiveness.
- Box 1 (Transparency): Yes – transparency helps people understand how the model works.
- Box 2 (Privacy): No – data must be protected; privacy is essential.
- Box 3 (Inclusiveness): No – inclusiveness means AI should empower all people and remove barriers (e.g., accessibility features), not pricing or
Vagos, Portugal
Anonymous User
Commented on April 12, 2026
what are the main topic in esam
Here are the main topics for the AI-900 exam:
- Describe AI workloads and considerations — identify common AI workloads and factors like data privacy, security, ethics, fairness, and governance.
- Describe fundamental principles of machine learning on Azure — basics of ML (supervised, unsupervised, reinforcement), model training and evaluation, and Azure ML services and workflows.
- Describe fundamental concepts of computer vision workloads — tasks such as image classification, object detection, OCR, and related vision capabilities.
- Describe fundamental concepts of NLP workloads and common use cases — topics like text analytics, translation, sentiment analysis, speech understanding.
- Describe conversational AI workloads and Azure services — chatbots and virtual assistants, using services like
Azure Bot Service, Language and Speech services, QnA.
- Describe responsible AI — six principles: fairness, accountability, reliability and safety, privacy and security, inclusiveness, and transparency.
Hyderabad, India
Anonymous User
Commented on April 12, 2026
Question 40:
- The correct answer cannot be determined from the given information because the symbol rate S (in Gbaud/s) is missing.
- Relationship: bits per symbol = 40 / S.
- If S = 20 Gbaud/s ? 40/20 = 2 bits per symbol ? QPSK / 4QAM.
- If S = 10 Gbaud/s ? 40/10 = 4 bits per symbol ? DP-QPSK.
- If S = 40 Gbaud/s ? 40/40 = 1 bit per symbol ? BPSK.
- Example: with S = 20 Gbaud/s, the modulation is QPSK (4QAM).
Cape Town, South Africa
jijore3700
Commented on April 12, 2026
Question 81:
- Correct answer: Purchase Azure Active Directory Premium Plan 2 licenses for all users.
Explanation:
- Azure AD Identity Protection features, including configuring a user risk policy and a sign-in risk policy, require Azure Active Directory Premium Plan 2.
- Premium Plan 1 does not include Identity Protection, so upgrading to P2 is necessary to access these policies.
- The other options don’t grant Identity Protection capabilities: MFA registration (B) isn’t the gating factor, security defaults (C) enable MFA but not risk policies, and Defender for Cloud features (D) are unrelated to Identity Protection.
Pfullingen, Germany
jijore3700
Commented on April 12, 2026
Question 80:
- Role1 (manage application security groups): use the resource type
Microsoft.Network/applicationSecurityGroups (i.e., the Microsoft.Network resource provider).
- Role2 (manage Azure Bastion): use the resource type
Microsoft.Network/bastions (i.e., the Microsoft.Network resource provider).
Explanation:
- Both resources are network-related and live under the
Microsoft.Network provider.
- Role1 needs permissions on the Application Security Groups resource type; Role2 needs
Pfullingen, Germany
jijore3700
Commented on April 12, 2026
Question 75:
- The task is to grant a user the ability to manage the properties of VMs in a specific resource group, using the principle of least privilege.
- The appropriate role is Virtual Machine Contributor, which allows managing virtual machines (start/stop, configure, update sizes, manage disks, etc.) but does not grant access to modify IAM or other resources outside the VM scope.
- Scope the role to the specific resource group RG1lod12345678 to limit permissions to that group only (least privilege).
- How to implement (summary of steps):
- Sign in to the Azure portal.
- Go to Resource Groups > select RG1lod12345678.
-
Pfullingen, Germany
Njabulo
Commented on April 12, 2026
question 7 : B,E
Johannesburg, South Africa
njabulo
Commented on April 11, 2026
great for exam preparations
Johannesburg, South Africa
Verifying
Commented on April 11, 2026
Q62 is engagement
Paris, France
Anonymous User
Commented on April 11, 2026
Question 1:
- Correct answer: 3.4 defects per million opportunities (DPMO).
- Why: In Six Sigma, process performance is measured as DPMO. A true Six Sigma level corresponds to about 3.4 defects per million opportunities.
Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
Anonymous User
Commented on April 11, 2026
Question 18:
- Answer: False
- Why: In Snowflake Secure Data Sharing, a Reader Account is an external account hosted by Snowflake to let partners access shared data. The Data Provider is billed for compute usage in the reader account (compute credits for the warehouses used to run queries), even though the data is read-only. So there are additional compute costs; it’s not zero-cost for the provider.
- How to manage: size or pause the reader account’s warehouses to control costs, since query compute in the reader account drives the charges.
Chennai, India
Anonymous User
Commented on April 11, 2026
Question 5:
- Answer: True
- Why: Bulk unloading in Snowflake is done with the
COPY INTO command. It supports unloading from a table or from the result of a SELECT statement. Using a SELECT lets you specify exactly which columns and rows to unload (and even compute expressions) before writing to an external stage. For example:
- COPY INTO @stage/path/file.csv FROM (SELECT col1, col2 FROM my_table WHERE date >= '2024-01-01') FILE_FORMAT=(TYPE=CSV);
Chennai, India
Anonymous User
Commented on April 11, 2026
Question 40:
- Correct answers: B and C.
- Why: In Azure AD, deleted objects go into a "Deleted items" state and can be restored within 30 days. The types you can restore are:
- Deleted users
- Deleted Office 365 (Microsoft 365) groups
- You cannot restore deleted security groups.
- So among the listed objects, you can restore the deleted user (User2) and the deleted Office 365 group (Group2).
Pfullingen, Germany
Anonymous User
Commented on April 11, 2026
Question 39:
- Why: The error occurs because guest invitations are blocked by the External collaboration settings. To invite an external partner, you need to allow guest invitations in the
Users blade under External collaboration settings (e.g., enable “Users can invite guest users”). The other options do not address guest invitation permissions.
Pfullingen, Germany
Anonymous User
Commented on April 11, 2026
Question 35:
- Why: SAS tokens that are issued against a stored access policy can be revoked by deleting or renaming that policy (changing its signed identifier). Generating new SAS tokens does not invalidate existing ones—the old tokens remain valid until they expire. By deleting/renaming the stored access policy, all SASs tied to that policy are immediately revoked, meeting the goal.
Pfullingen, Germany
malvie2@gmail.com
Commented on April 10, 2026
Question 367:
Correct answer: A) Social engineering training
- Why: It educates employees to recognize phishing indicators and handle suspicious emails safely, directly reducing accidental malware introduction from user actions.
- SPF configuration: Helps prevent email spoofing at DNS level but doesn’t train users or reduce click risk.
- Simulated phishing campaign: Useful for testing and reinforcing training, but the question asks for the best overall posture; foundational training is more impactful.
- Insider threat awareness: Focuses on misuse by trusted insiders, not broadly on malware introduced via phishing.
Recommendation: implement ongoing security awareness training and consider periodic phishing simulations to reinforce the lessons.
Cape Town, South Africa
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
Question 2:
- Correct answer: Memory and Heartbeat.
- Memory: Shows current RAM usage and pressure. Helps you optimize utilization by indicating how much memory is free, available, and how often the system is paging.
- Heartbeat: A liveness indicator that the server or monitoring agent is alive. If the heartbeat fails, you know the host/service is down or unresponsive, which is essential for ensuring overall utilization and availability.
- Page file: part of virtual memory, but not a direct performance metric by itself in this context.
- Services / Application: are things you monitor, not metrics themselves.
- CPU: a common utilization metric, but the question’s provided answer uses Memory and Heartbeat.
Innisfil, Canada
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
Question 4:
- Why: An interface is assigned to a single security
zone to define its security boundary. Traffic is evaluated based on that zone’s policies, so an interface cannot belong to multiple zones simultaneously.
- How to segment on one physical port: use
subinterfaces (VLANs). Each subinterface can be assigned to a different zone, allowing multiple security boundaries on the same physical link.
Spain
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
Question 2:
- Correct answer: management plane.
- Why: The management (control) plane is responsible for configuration, logging, and reporting. It runs on a separate processor to keep admin tasks isolated from traffic processing, ensuring the firewall remains manageable even under load.
- Data plane: forwards user traffic.
- Security processing plane: handles security tasks like App-ID, threat prevention.
Netherlands
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
Question 29:
- Correct answer: A) Hashing
- Why: Hashing creates a unique digest of the final software version. If the code is tampered with, the hash will change, so you can detect tampering by recomputing and comparing the hash to the original.
- What the other options do (and why they’re not correct for tamper detection):
- Encryption: protects confidentiality, not integrity or tamper detection.
- Baselines: describe standard configurations to detect deviations, but don’t provide a tamper-evident check on the final artifact itself.
- Tokenization: replaces data with tokens for privacy, not for verifying software integrity.
- Practical idea: generate a hash (e.g., SHA-256) of the final build, store it securely or
Netherlands
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
Question 71:
Here’s the mapping for Question 71, which asks to place TCP/IP protocols onto their primary transmission (TCP/IP) layer:
- Connection-oriented, reliable delivery.
- Connectionless, best-effort delivery.
- Addressing and routing of packets.
- Control messages used by IP (e.g., echo, unreachable).
- ARP ? Link (Data Link) layer
- Resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses on a local network.
Key idea: In TCP/IP, the layers ar
United Kingdom
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
Question 1:
You’re right to double-check. The correct answer is B.
- A reporting snapshot captures data from a report on a scheduled basis and stores it in a custom object for historical analysis.
- To meet the requirement “store the details of open opportunities weekly,” schedule a reporting snapshot weekly and store results in a custom object.
- For “forecasts and closes monthly,” you can create a separate snapshot that runs monthly (or design the source report to include monthly data). Salesforce supports multiple snapshots, so you can cover both weekly open opportunities and monthly forecast/close data, even though the option here highlights the weekly snapshot approach.
Why the other options aren’t as suitable:
- A and D rely on a forecast report and store in a folder, which doesn’t pres
United Kingdom
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
Question 4:
- Correct answer: A. Merge the Customer and Address tables.
- Why: You want one row per customer and include the city, state/region, and country. The data is in two tables that relate via Address ID. Merging (joining) the tables on Address ID brings in the address fields for each customer. Other options are not suitable:
- Group by would summarize data, not join.
- Transpose would flip rows/columns.
- Append would stack tables, not relate them by a key.
- How to do it (Power Query Editor):
- Select the Customer table.
- Use Merge Queries (or Merge Queries as New).
- Choose the Address table and join on Address ID (use Left Outer
United Kingdom
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
Question 1:
- Correct answer: C —
test (e.g., test security-policy-match).
- Explanation: The
test CLI command simulates traffic through the firewall and reveals exactly which elements would be triggered—Security policy rule, NAT translation, static route, or PBF rule—for a given source/destination/service. It’s a troubleshooting tool to validate how traffic would be handled by the policies without sending real traffic.
India
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
Question 6:
Question 6 asks which agreement type defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond. The correct answer is:
- Answer: B — SLA (Service Level Agreement)
Key concepts:
- An SLA specifies the service levels, including expected response and resolution times for incidents, uptime, and support hours in a vendor relationship.
- It creates enforceable metrics (e.g., response within X hours, problem solved within Y hours) and may include service credits if not met.
Why the others don’t fit:
- A) SOW (Statement of Work): defines project scope, deliverables, and timelines for a specific project, not ongoing response windows.
- C) MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): outlines mutual aims; not typically enforceable performance metrics.<
India
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
Question 4:
- The task is an image classification problem (predicting plant diseases). The metric to evaluate “how many images were classified correctly” is Accuracy.
- Accuracy = (number of correctly predicted images) / (total number of images). It directly measures overall correctness for classification tasks (binary or multi-class).
- Why the other options are not appropriate here:
- R-squared score and RMSE are metrics for regression, not classification.
- Learning rate is a training hyperparameter, not a measure of model performance.
- Quick tip: In cases with class imbalance, you might also look at precision, recall, or F1-score, but for this question, accuracy is the i
United States
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
- Answer: C — linkage to business area objectives.
Why this is the most important:
- Senior management cares about how security supports business goals. Linking the governance process to business objectives shows how security enables value, not just protects assets.
- It aligns risk management with business priorities (revenue, availability, regulatory requirements), helping secure funding and sponsorship.
Why the other options are less critical as the sole focus:
- Knowledge required to analyze each issue: important for depth, but not what senior management needs to judge governance effectiveness.
- Information security metrics: useful, but only meaningful when tied to business objectives; metrics without context may misrepresent value.
- Baseline against which metrics are evalua
United States
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
- Correct answer: Role-based access control (RBAC).
- Why: RBAC assigns permissions to roles rather than to individual users. Users are granted access by being placed into roles that match their job responsibilities. This greatly simplifies management when many users share similar duties, reducing administrative overhead and the chance of granting excess rights. It also supports consistent application of the principle of least privilege and easier auditing.
- How it compares to other options:
- DAC: Access is granted by individual owners, which can lead to permission sprawl and harder administration for many users.
- Content-dependent Access Control: Access decisions depend on the content being accessed, not on user roles.
- Rule-based Access Control: Focuses on policie
United States
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
Question 2 asks which technique best identifies a broad range of strategic risks. The correct answer is PESTLE.
- PESTLE analyzes external macro-environmental factors: Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, and Environmental. This approach helps identify risks and opportunities that could impact strategy across markets and regulations.
- Why not the others:
- OKR focuses on setting and measuring objectives, not risk identification.
- Customer analytics looks at customer data, not the full external risk landscape.
- Portfolio optimization prioritizes initiatives but isn’t primarily a tool for broad risk identification.
United States
Anonymous User
Commented on April 10, 2026
- Why: Using cyber insurance is a risk transfer strategy. It shifts potential financial losses from the organization to a third party (the insurer) for risks listed in the risk register.
- Accept: Acknowledge the risk without taking action.
- Mitigate: Implement controls to reduce likelihood/impact, not to transfer costs.
- Avoid: Change plans to eliminate the risk entirely.
- Quick context: In risk management, after identifying risks (in the risk register), you choose treatments. Insurance is a classic transfer method, moving financial exposure to an external party.
United States
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Commented on April 03, 2026
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New York, United States
Cooper
Commented on April 02, 2026
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United States
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Commented on March 31, 2026
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Kusadasi, Türkiye
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Commented on March 28, 2026
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Kusadasi, Türkiye
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Commented on March 26, 2026
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Kusadasi, Türkiye
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Commented on March 13, 2026
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United States
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Commented on March 05, 2026
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New York, United States
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Commented on March 05, 2026
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Anonymous
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