Microsoft MB-335 Exam Prep
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management Functional Consultant Expert (Page 16 )

• A: It allows for branching and merging...

• C: It allows multiple engineers to work against the same code and configuration files and manage differences and conflicts.

• B: Build automation and infrastructure provisioning are handled by CI/CD and automation tools, not by version control alone.
• D: User Stories and backlogs are managed by project-management tools.
• E: Version control stores and tracks code, but it does not itself ensure that developers write effective unit tests.

• Resources that do not need internet access should remain on private network segments.
• Internet-facing access should be restricted to systems that require it.
• Access should be explicitly allowed rather than broadly exposed.

• A: A single administrator with access to core functions may violate least privilege if that access is broader than necessary.
• B: Inspecting traffic supports monitoring and defense, but does not itself limit privileges.
• C: Updating routing configurations supports availability and connectivity, not least privilege.

• Due Date
• Order Date
• Delivery Date

DAX 
Order Date = 'Due Date' 
Delivery Date = 'Due Date'

• Due Date[Date] ? Sales[Due Date]
• Order Date[Date] ? Sales[Order Date]
• Delivery Date[Date] ? Sales[Delivery Date]

1. Find the subnet-mask increment in the octet where the prefix ends.
2. Identify the network address by finding the subnet boundary at or below the given IP.
3. The first usable address is network address + 1.
4. The broadcast address is one address before the next subnet.
5. The last usable address is broadcast - 1.

• 172.28.228.144/18

• 172.28.228.144/23

• BCP: Maintains essential business operations during and after disruption. It is broader than IT recovery, but the question focuses on restoring the destroyed data center.
• Communication plan: Defines how the organization communicates with staff, the public, and other stakeholders.
• IRP: Handles security incidents such as malware, unauthorized access, or data breaches—not physical disaster recovery.

• A Layer 2 switch checks the destination MAC address in its MAC address table (CAM table).
• If the destination MAC is unknown, the switch cannot select a specific outgoing port.
• It therefore performs unknown-unicast flooding, sending the frame out every other port in that VLAN.
• The frame is not sent back through the port where it arrived.

• Espionage: Stealing information for intelligence or competitive purposes.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: A sophisticated attack sponsored by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or access methods used by employees.

• Supervised learning requires labeled examples to learn how to classify customers.
• Reinforcement learning learns through actions, rewards, and penalties, which is not the main task here.
• RLHF uses human feedback to improve model behavior, typically for generative AI, not customer segmentation.

• Advanced Persistent Threat (APT): A sustained, targeted attack campaign or attacker group—not a vulnerability.
• Trojan: Malware disguised as legitimate software.
• Stealthware: A general term for malware designed to avoid detection; it does not specifically mean an unknown vulnerability.

• SAML: Enables federated authentication and single sign-on between the IdP and SaaS providers.
• OAuth tokens: Allow delegated application access; OAuth is not primarily the first step for employee SSO.
• Password vaulting: Stores or autofills multiple passwords but does not eliminate the separate credentials or provide true federation.

• Azure creates a corresponding service principal in Microsoft Entra ID.
• The identity’s lifecycle is tied to the Azure resource.
• If the resource is deleted, Azure automatically deletes the identity.
• Only the associated resource can use that identity to request tokens.
• You can grant the identity permissions to access services such as Key Vault or Storage without storing credentials in code.

• Create a CodeCommit repository in the secondary Region.
• Use CodeBuild to run a Git mirror operation from the primary repository to the secondary repository.
• Use EventBridge to detect relevant repository events, such as a pull request being merged.
• Invoke a Lambda function, which starts the CodeBuild project.

• B: Amazon S3 is object storage, not a Git repository that developers can use as a CodeCommit remote.
• C: CodeArtifact is intended for packages and artifacts, not source-code repository mirroring.
• D: An AWS Cloud9 environment is not an appropriate automated replication mechanism and would require manual or persistent infrastructure management.

• Wireshark captures packets and allows you to examine their contents, potentially revealing usernames and passwords sent without encryption.
• Netcat creates network connections and can send or receive data, but it is not primarily a packet-analysis tool.
• Nessus scans for known vulnerabilities and configuration issues; it generally would not prove that credentials are visible in transit.
• Nmap performs network discovery and port/service scanning, not detailed packet-content inspection.

• Have a definite, clear objective (C): Know exactly what you want to communicate. A clear purpose reduces ambiguity and irrelevant information.
• Plan the communication (E): Decide what to say, who needs the information, the appropriate channel and the best timing.
• Seek feedback (F): Check that the receiver understood the message. This could involve asking for confirmation or inviting questions.

• Ask questions (A): Usually associated with the receiver checking or clarifying information, although a sender may use questions in practice.
• Give feedback (B): Feedback is generally the receiver’s response to the sender’s message. The sender’s responsibility here is to seek feedback.
• Consider their contribution (D): This is not a standard sender-focused step in the communication process. The sender should consider the receiver’s needs and perspective, but the wording is less precise than the three recognised actions above.

• B. Users accessing Salesforce from public Wi-Fi

• C. Users choosing the same password as their Facebook password

• A: 2FA does not protect an already-authenticated, unlocked session if someone accesses an unattended laptop.
• D: Weak password-reset questions are an account-recovery weakness. 2FA primarily strengthens login authentication, not necessarily the security-question reset process.

• Accept: Acknowledges the risk without taking additional action.
• Transfer: Shifts the risk or financial impact to another party, such as an insurer.
• Mitigate: Reduces the likelihood or impact through controls like patching, MFA, or segmentation.
• Avoid: Eliminates the activity that creates the risk.

• Third-party enterprise application with embedded AI: The provider manages most security controls. The customer mainly manages users, data, and configuration.
• Application using an existing third-party FM: The customer controls the application and its inputs/outputs, but the provider controls the underlying model and infrastructure.
• Fine-tuning a third-party FM: The customer has additional responsibility for training data, data protection, and model behavior, but still depends on the provider’s base model and platform.
• Building and training a model from scratch: The customer controls the model, training data, application, deployment, and many security safeguards. This creates the greatest security ownership.

1. Get Data > Folder

1. Expand the Attributes column

1. Remove the Content column

• Folder connector: lists files and their metadata, but also includes a Content binary column.
• Combine Files: processes and combines the actual CSV contents, which is explicitly disallowed here.

• Check whether the data is accurate, complete, and properly prepared.
• Confirm that the pattern is not caused by an outlier, data-quality problem, or modeling issue.
• If the data is valid, treat the result as a potentially valuable new business insight.

• A: A data scientist may help, but expert validation and data-quality checking come first.
• C: Filtering out inconvenient data risks hiding a valid insight.
• D: Einstein’s result should not be accepted without verification simply because it produced the finding.

• File hashes
• Strings and metadata
• Binary or code structure
• Known malicious patterns
• Embedded indicators or signatures

• Sandbox: Executes the file in an isolated environment; useful for observing behavior, but usually slower.
• Network traffic analysis: Examines communications generated by a system or application, not the file itself.
• Package monitoring: Tracks software packages or installations and is not the primary method for examining malware signatures.

Correct choices

• DB1: Azure Data Box Heavy
• Virtual machines: Azure Migrate

Why

• Replication with minimal downtime
• A test migration
• Final cutover after validation

• A. IDS attack signatures: Primarily detects suspicious network activity, not necessarily malware embedded in uploaded files.
• C. Load balancer: Improves availability and distributes traffic; it does not inspect documents for malware.
• D. WAF: Protects web applications from attacks such as SQL injection and command injection, but its primary role is not scanning uploaded PDFs for malware.

• Virtual machine disks
• Databases
• Storage accounts
• File systems

• Site-to-site VPN: protects data moving between networks
• HTTPS: protects data moving between a client and website
• Encrypted email: generally protects the message while being transmitted

• At rest = stored data
• In transit = moving data
• In use = data currently being processed by a system

• A — If there is no demand, there should be no production.

• B — Not all sales equal profit.

• C — Stocking up on inventory is bad for business.

• D — All costs, except materials, are considered fixed.

• E — Departments should operate at full capacity regardless of bottlenecks.

• D — Managers focus on keeping costs low in the short term to maximise profits.

• E — Managers are given incentives to meet or undercut budgets.

• F — Managers delegate responsibility simply to reduce their workload.

• Inherent risk: Risk that exists before controls are implemented.
• Avoided risk: Risk eliminated by choosing not to perform the risky activity.
• Operational risk: Risk arising from failures in processes, people, systems, or daily operations.

• Portfolio definition cycle — establishes and maintains the portfolio strategy, objectives, and management framework.
• Portfolio delivery cycle — coordinates and monitors the delivery of change initiatives, ensuring the portfolio remains aligned with strategic objectives and delivers value.

• Practice — a structured area of portfolio management activity, such as risk management or resource management.
• Technique — a method used to perform an activity; it is not the term for portfolio delivery itself.
• Principle — a guiding rule for effective portfolio management.

• The S3 bucket as an origin for static content
• The Application Load Balancer (ALB) as an origin for dynamic content
• An Amazon Route 53 alias record pointing the application domain to CloudFront

Why this works

• Static data: CloudFront caches objects from S3 at edge locations, reducing latency for users worldwide.
• Dynamic data: CloudFront forwards requests that require application processing to the ALB. It can also maintain persistent connections and use the AWS global edge network to improve delivery performance.
• One domain: CloudFront behaviors can route different path patterns to different origins—for example, /static/* to S3 and other paths to the ALB.

Why the other options are incorrect

• Global Accelerator is designed primarily for accelerating traffic to applications with endpoints such as ALBs, not for caching S3 content.
• Using separate domains or splitting static and dynamic traffic adds unnecessary complexity.
• CloudFront already provides the required global edge distribution and caching, so combining it with Global Accelerator is unnecessary here.

• A — Correct: Identify the data required by Salesforce, its dependencies, and how it should be validated. Verification scripts help confirm record counts, relationships, field mappings, and data integrity after migration.
• D — Correct: Use a full sandbox and perform trial migrations using realistic—or appropriately masked—legacy data. This exposes transformation, volume, dependency, and integration issues before production cutover.
• B — Less appropriate: Phased user migration and parallel operation primarily address user adoption and rollout risk, not the technical risks of data migration.
• C — Less appropriate: Although sandbox testing and integration testing are valuable, the option emphasizes test-data generation rather than validating the migration with representative legacy data. “A full sandbox for all systems” may also be impractical.

• A. IDS attack signatures: An IDS primarily detects suspicious network activity and usually does not provide dedicated file-upload malware scanning. It is generally detective rather than preventive.
• C. Load balancer: Distributes traffic among servers and improves availability; it does not inspect documents for malware.
• D. WAF: Helps block web-application attacks such as SQL injection, command injection, and XSS. Although a WAF may inspect upload requests, malware detection in PDF files is more directly addressed by antivirus or content-scanning functionality.

• Generates a syslog message
• Shuts down the PoE port
• Places the port into error-disabled (err-disabled) state
• Frees the power allocation

• A device starting to draw power does not necessarily generate a syslog message.
• Monitoring does not pause data traffic while checking power.
• Drawing less than the configured minimum does not automatically mean the device has failed and should be disconnected.

• Domain controllers, because the requirement specifically excludes them. However, note that both member servers and domain controllers run Windows Server, so OS targeting alone cannot distinguish them unless the targeting option allows selecting the relevant server role/version. In the usual exam interpretation, target the applicable server OS category.
• Client computers, because they run a client Windows operating system.

• Domain: Targets membership in a domain, not the computer’s operating-system type.
• Security Group: Would require creating and maintaining a group containing all member servers, increasing administrative effort.
• Environment Variable: Not designed to reliably identify member servers.

1. Convert text and images into numerical embeddings.
2. Store or compare those embeddings.
3. Retrieve the most semantically similar items.

• Embedding model: Best for similarity search and retrieval.
• Generation model: Best for producing new text or other content from multimodal input.

• C — Some risks cannot be eliminated.

• D — Accepting residual risk does not imply recklessness.

• E — Most companies in this industry will say something similar.

• tag=Priv searches the tag field for values beginning with Priv. The wildcard can match the remaining characters, so it matches Privileged.
• tag=Priv would search for the exact tag Priv, not Privileged.
• tag=priv* uses lowercase priv; tag matching is treated as case-sensitive here, so it may not match the tag Privileged.
• tag=privileged uses the wrong capitalization for the exact tag.

• An Adj-SID does not necessarily need manual configuration.
• It can often be dynamically allocated by the router, although manual configuration may also be possible.
• The adjacency information is advertised through the IGP, such as IS-IS or OSPF.

• It is identified by an Adj-SID.
• It represents a particular adjacency of a node.
• Its meaning is generally local to the advertising node; unlike a Node-SID, it is not a globally reusable instruction across the network.

• Azure Cosmos DB is a globally distributed NoSQL database service. It stores and retrieves application data, but it does not provide the complete environment for building, testing, and deploying predictive analytics models.
• Azure Machine Learning is the appropriate service for this requirement. It supports creating experiments, training and testing models, and deploying them for predictions.
• Azure Machine Learning Studio provides the browser-based interface for these tasks.

• Response and resolution time frames
• Availability or uptime requirements
• Performance targets
• Support obligations
• Penalties for failing to meet requirements

• SOW (Statement of Work): Defines the project’s scope, tasks, and deliverables.
• MOA (Memorandum of Agreement): Describes cooperation and responsibilities between parties.
• MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): Records a general mutual understanding, usually without detailed enforceable service targets.

• Accept: Acknowledge the risk and take no additional action.
• Transfer: Shift the risk or financial impact to another party, such as through insurance or a contract.
• Mitigate: Reduce the likelihood or impact using controls, such as firewalls, training, or backups.
• Avoid: Eliminate the activity that creates the risk.

• Password spraying: Tries a few common passwords against many accounts; no indication of repeated login attempts.
• Remote-access Trojan (RAT): Could install malware, but it does not explain how the attacker obtained the administrator’s credentials.
• Dictionary attack: Tries words or common passwords against an account; again, the scenario specifically highlights Telnet’s lack of encryption.

• Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates define the virtual machines and related Azure resources declaratively. You can deploy the same template repeatedly, ensuring consistent VM sizes, networking, storage, extensions, and other infrastructure settings.

• PowerShell DSC extension applies and maintains the required Windows configuration inside each VM. DSC is state-based: if a setting changes or becomes incorrect, DSC can bring it back to the desired configuration.

• Azure Pipelines deployment groups organize deployment targets, but they do not primarily enforce ongoing VM configuration.
• Custom Script Extension runs setup scripts, but it is generally less maintainable and does not continuously enforce configuration like DSC.
• Pipeline stage templates reuse pipeline workflow definitions; they do not configure the VMs themselves.

• A — Securing information assets: This is the responsibility of management and operational/security teams.
• B — Validating protection: Correct. The auditor checks whether controls—such as access restrictions, encryption, retention, and handling procedures—match the asset’s classification.
• C — Ensuring alignment with regulations: Management and legal/compliance functions typically establish classification requirements; the auditor may assess compliance but does not primarily define alignment.
• D — Defining classification levels: This is a management responsibility based on business needs, risk, and regulatory obligations.

• A — Technical review by business owner: A business owner may approve the business impact, but a technical review is normally performed by technical personnel.
• C — Cost-benefit analysis after implementation: Cost-benefit analysis should occur before implementation to support the approval decision.
• D — Business continuity testing: This can be appropriate for major changes, but it is primarily part of business continuity and disaster recovery planning—not a universal change-management activity.

1. Which host originated the infection

1. Which remaining hosts are infected

• Blue team: Defends systems, monitors activity, and responds to attacks.
• Purple team: Coordinates red- and blue-team activities to improve defenses.
• White team: Oversees or manages the exercise, including rules and scope.

• Keep earlier prompt versions.
• Identify the last version that produced acceptable output.
• Restore it as a baseline.
• Make small, controlled changes—ideally one significant change at a time.
• Test the output after each change.

• A: Discards useful information about what worked.
• B: Large simultaneous changes make it difficult to identify the cause of problems.
• D: Accepts output that does not meet the requirements.

• Approve major information security policies
• Allocate funding and resources
• Set the organization’s risk appetite
• Ensure security supports business objectives

• Evaluating vendors is generally handled by security, procurement, or technical teams.
• Assessing risks is typically performed by security and risk-management professionals, with management accepting or prioritizing the risks.
• Monitoring regulatory adherence is usually handled by compliance, audit, or security functions.

• BCP (Business Continuity Plan): è più ampio e mira a mantenere le funzioni essenziali dell’organizzazione durante un’interruzione. Il DRP è una componente più specifica del BCP.
• Communication plan: stabilisce come comunicare con dipendenti, cittadini e altre parti interessate, ma non ripristina i sistemi.
• IRP (Incident Response Plan): gestisce la risposta iniziale a un incidente di sicurezza, come un attacco informatico, non principalmente il recupero da un disastro fisico.