PMI PMI-ACP Exam Prep
PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (Page 5 )

• SQL injection (SQLi): Attacks databases by inserting malicious SQL commands.
• Cross-site scripting (XSS): Injects scripts into web pages viewed by other users.
• Sideloading: Installing an application from outside the official app store. It may install unauthorized apps, but it does not generally unlock the operating system or enable restricted system features.

• Owner, Contributor, and Network Contributor provide sufficient management permissions.
• Reader can view Traffic Analytics data but cannot enable or configure it.

• The user starts in the corporate portal.
• The portal launches the Salesforce resource.
• The IdP sends the SAML response to Salesforce.

• Connected App + OAuth is for OAuth authorization and API/app access, not this SAML-based seamless login scenario.
• SP-initiated SSO would begin when the user first requests the Salesforce resource and Salesforce redirects them to the IdP. That is not the described starting point.

• 2000::/3 — Global unicast, used for publicly routable IPv6 addresses.
• FC00::/7 — Unique local, used for private internal addressing.
• FE80::/10 — Link-local, used only on the local network segment and not routed between subnets.

1. You try to access a cloud application, such as accounting software.
2. The application redirects you to the company’s IdP.
3. You authenticate with the IdP.
4. The IdP sends a digitally signed SAML assertion to the application.
5. The application validates the assertion and grants access.

• The user’s identity
• Whether authentication succeeded
• Roles or group membership
• Access-related attributes

• Financial performance
• Customer perspective
• Internal business processes
• Learning and growth

• Increasing the number of indicators can make the scorecard cluttered and less useful. Measures should be limited to those that are strategically important.
• The scorecard is mainly a tool for implementing and monitoring strategy, not for formulating strategy.
• It should contain both leading indicators and lagging indicators. Leading indicators predict future performance, while lagging indicators measure results already achieved.

• A. A virtual network gateway
• D. A virtual network

• Azure virtual machines must be connected to an Azure virtual network (VNet). The VNet provides private IP addressing and network connectivity for the VMs.
• A virtual network gateway enables communication between the Azure VNet and the on-premises network, typically through a site-to-site VPN or ExpressRoute connection.

• Load balancer: Distributes traffic among Azure VMs; it does not connect Azure to an on-premises network.
• Application gateway: Provides web-application load balancing and Layer 7 routing; it is not the normal resource for on-premises connectivity.
• Gateway subnet: A gateway subnet is required inside the VNet when deploying a virtual network gateway, but the question’s intended two primary resources are the VNet and virtual network gateway.

• The current and previous versions
• Which clauses were changed
• When each revision occurred
• Potentially, who made the changes

• Version validation: Verifies a version’s accuracy or integrity but does not primarily track revisions.
• Version changes: Not the standard name for a formal document-management process.
• Version updates: Describes updating a document, not the complete process of managing and tracking its revisions.

• The servers run different operating systems: Windows, Linux, and Unix.
• Containers generally share the host operating system’s kernel, so they cannot normally run workloads requiring unrelated kernels, such as Windows and Linux, on the same Linux host.
• A hypervisor can create separate virtual machines, allowing each VM to run its own guest OS.
• A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of a host operating system and can support multiple guest operating systems.

• A — Correct: Identify the data required by Salesforce, its dependencies, and how it should be validated. Verification scripts help confirm record counts, relationships, field mappings, and data integrity after migration.
• D — Correct: Use a full sandbox and perform trial migrations using realistic—or appropriately masked—legacy data. This exposes transformation, volume, dependency, and integration issues before production cutover.
• B — Less appropriate: Phased user migration and parallel operation primarily address user adoption and rollout risk, not the technical risks of data migration.
• C — Less appropriate: Although sandbox testing and integration testing are valuable, the option emphasizes test-data generation rather than validating the migration with representative legacy data. “A full sandbox for all systems” may also be impractical.

• Espionage: Stealing information for intelligence or competitive purposes.
• Data exfiltration: Unauthorized removal or transfer of data.
• Nation-state attack: A sophisticated attack sponsored by a government.
• Shadow IT: Unapproved technology or access methods used by employees.

• Manage multiple organizations from one hierarchy.
• Enterprise-wide policies, including repository visibility, forking, and GitHub Copilot policies.
• Centralized identity and access management, such as SAML SSO, SCIM provisioning, and—where applicable—Enterprise Managed Users.
• Centralized billing and licensing, including organization and Copilot seat management.
• Enterprise audit log, which aggregates activity across organizations.
• Security and compliance oversight, such as organization security visibility and enterprise-wide controls.
• Enterprise support and account management features, depending on the plan.

• Organization: manages its own repositories, teams, members, and local policies.
• Enterprise: governs multiple organizations and can enforce policies across them.

• Detect risky sign-ins from unfamiliar or unidentified IP addresses
• Evaluate user or sign-in risk
• Automatically require a password change because of a risky sign-in

• User risk policy: Can require a user to securely change their password when the account may be compromised.
• Sign-in risk policy: Can require MFA or block access based on the risk of a particular sign-in.

• Replaces the verbal message — this describes non-verbal communication being used instead of words.
• Substitutes for verbal communication — similar; it means communicating without speech.
• Confuses the verbal message — this occurs when non-verbal signals contradict or obscure the spoken message.

• The user authenticates with the external Identity Provider.
• Salesforce receives the SAML assertion.
• Salesforce uses attributes in that assertion—such as username, email, first name, last name, and profile/community information—to create the user during the first login.
• On later logins, Salesforce updates or uses the existing user record.

• On-the-fly provisioning is a general phrase; the Salesforce capability being tested is specifically JIT provisioning.
• Salesforce APIs would require a separate integration and provisioning process.
• Identity Connect is designed primarily to synchronize users from an identity directory, not to create users at the moment of their first SAML login.

• Each Azure VM must have at least one network interface (NIC).
• A single NIC can have:

• Therefore, each of the five VMs needs only one NIC:

• User preferences change, so the model must learn from recent data.
• Keeping the existing data helps preserve knowledge of older patterns and provides a broader training distribution.
• Training only on new data can cause catastrophic forgetting and may overfit if the new dataset is small.
• The new data should not automatically be used as the test set, because it is needed for training and the model must still be evaluated on separate, representative data.

• Blue team: Defends systems, monitors activity, and responds to attacks.
• Purple team: Coordinates red- and blue-team activities to improve defenses.
• White team: Oversees or manages the exercise, including rules and scope.

• A — Too infrequent: Formal strategies are often reviewed only every three to five years. This can make the organisation slow to respond to rapid changes in technology, competitors, regulation or customer needs.

• C — Relies on predicting the future: The approach assumes senior managers can make reasonably reliable forecasts and assumptions. In uncertain environments, these assumptions may quickly become invalid.

• E — Can restrict radical innovation: Formal planning tends to favour existing information, established objectives and incremental improvements. This may discourage experimental or highly innovative strategies that emerge from lower levels of the organisation.

• B concerns the difficulty of achieving competitive advantage through core competences when competing with focused specialists. It is not specifically a drawback of the formal top-down planning process.
• D is an activity organisations should undertake—continuous monitoring—not a drawback of the approach itself.

• Business
• People
• Governance
• Platform
• Security
• Operations

• Cloud financial management
• Portfolio and program management
• Risk management
• Data governance
• Compliance and oversight

• Gaia Portal: Controlled by Gaia administration settings, not SmartConsole Trusted Clients.
• SSH: Controlled by Gaia or operating-system SSH access settings.
• Security Gateway(s): SmartConsole connects to the Security Management Server, not directly to gateways for this purpose.

• Idioma: “Responda em português.”
• Tamanho: “Responda em até três frases.”
• Formato: “Use uma lista com três recomendações.”
• Objetivo: “Recomende produtos com base nas necessidades do cliente.”

• Mudar o tamanho do LLM: pode alterar capacidade e custo, mas não garante idioma ou respostas curtas.
• Aumentar a temperatura: aumenta a criatividade e a aleatoriedade; não controla diretamente o tamanho ou idioma.
• Aumentar o Top K: permite considerar mais tokens prováveis, aumentando a variedade; também não é o mecanismo principal para controlar idioma ou comprimento.

• Open or insecure ports
• Enabled legacy or insecure protocols
• Known vulnerabilities and misconfigurations
• Weak services and outdated software

• curl tests web requests and HTTP-based services.
• Wireshark captures and analyzes network traffic; it does not normally scan servers for weaknesses.
• netcat can test connectivity to individual ports and sometimes grab service banners, but it is not a comprehensive vulnerability scanner.

• Tactics: The attacker’s overall goal, such as gaining persistence or exfiltrating data
• Techniques: The methods used to achieve that goal
• Procedures: The specific implementation or sequence of actions

• IP addresses and hash values: Useful indicators, but they can change quickly.
• Indicators of compromise: TTPs may help identify IOCs, but their main value is describing behavior.
• Tools: Attackers can replace tools or use legitimate administrative utilities.

• Disable default accounts: Default or unused accounts may have predictable names or credentials and can be abused by attackers. They should be disabled, removed, or secured with strong credentials where necessary.
• Remove unnecessary services: Every running service can contain vulnerabilities or provide an entry point. Removing services the server does not need reduces exposure.

• Add the server to the asset inventory: Important for asset management, but it does not directly harden the system.
• Document default passwords: Default passwords should be changed or disabled—not recorded for continued use.
• Send logs to the SIEM: Supports monitoring and detection, rather than directly reducing the attack surface.
• Join the corporate domain: A deployment/configuration decision, not inherently a hardening measure.

Question 3: AWS Storage Gateway File Gateway

• A: S3 bucket per user — S3 is object storage, not a traditional shared file system; mounting it requires extra tools and is less efficient.
• B: File Gateway — Provides a local file share using standard file protocols while storing files in Amazon S3. This preserves convenient local access and extends storage capacity.
• C: WorkSpaces and WorkDocs — Designed for virtual desktops and document collaboration, not large shared file storage.
• D: EC2 with EBS — EBS is attached to one EC2 instance and is not designed for direct multi-user file sharing.

• AWS Budgets lets you create a cost or usage budget and configure alerts when actual or forecasted spending reaches a threshold. Notifications can be sent through email or Amazon SNS.
• Amazon CloudWatch can monitor AWS billing metrics and trigger an alarm when estimated charges exceed a specified amount.

• Amazon SQS is a message queue, not a cost-monitoring service.
• Cost Explorer analyzes spending but does not directly provide threshold notifications.
• AWS Cost and Usage Report delivers detailed billing data for analysis; it does not itself send threshold alerts.

• Disaster recovery backups
• Long-term backup retention
• Data archiving that still needs occasional access

• Multi-Regional Storage: Intended for frequently accessed data needing broad geographic availability; it costs more.
• Regional Storage: Suitable for frequently accessed data within one region.
• Nearline Storage: Intended for data accessed roughly once per month, such as monthly backups.
• Coldline Storage: Better fit for backups accessed only during a disaster or occasional recovery event.

• IKE: Negotiates security parameters for IPsec VPNs; it does not identify switch ports.
• VLAN: A logical network segmentation method, not a discovery protocol.
• netstat: Displays local network connections and listening services, but cannot identify the physical switch or port.

1. Define Power Platform DLP policies

1. Add custom prompt modifications

1. Conduct adversarial testing

1. Modify the database subnet NACL inbound rules to allow traffic from the new web subnet’s CIDR block on the MySQL port (3306).
2. Modify the database subnet NACL outbound rules to allow return traffic to the new web subnet’s CIDR block on the required ephemeral port range.

• Restarting the device: May fix software glitches, but would not usually make cable orientation matter.
• Swollen battery: A safety concern, but it would not typically cause recognition only in one cable orientation.
• Failing cable: Possible, but less likely because the problem occurs with this particular device and not other devices of the same type.

• Red team: Simulates attackers; exploits weaknesses to test security.
• Blue team: Defends systems; monitors, detects, and responds to attacks.
• Purple team: Combines red- and blue-team efforts to improve detection and defense.
• White team: Oversees or manages the test, defining rules, scope, and authorization.

1. Start with the Customer table.
2. Use Merge Queries and select the Address table.
3. Match Customer[Address ID] to Address[Address ID].
4. Use a Left Outer join so every customer is retained.
5. Expand only City, State/Region, and Country.

• Append adds rows vertically; it is for stacking similarly structured tables.
• Group By summarizes rows and does not retrieve address columns.
• Transpose swaps rows and columns and is unrelated to table relationships.

• IaaS: You manage the virtual machine’s operating system, configuration, applications, and data. Azure manages the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform.
• PaaS: You deploy applications without managing the underlying operating system or servers.
• SaaS: You consume a complete application managed by the provider, such as Microsoft 365.

• OpenID Connect (OIDC) is an authentication layer built on OAuth 2.0.
• It returns an ID token, normally a JWT containing identity claims such as the user’s subject, name, email, or other permitted attributes.
• The wellness application can consume those claims without needing a separate user-information call.

• JWT Bearer Token Flow: intended for server-to-server authorization and does not primarily provide an end-user ID token.
• Web Server Flow: is an OAuth authorization-code flow. It can be used with OIDC in some implementations, but “Web Server Flow” alone does not specifically guarantee an ID token.
• User Agent Flow: describes an OAuth flow, not the identity protocol itself.

• Reviewing security policies and standards checks whether controls are documented, not whether they work.
• Reviewing security logs may show that monitoring is occurring, but does not directly establish that preventive controls are effective.
• Analyzing technical security practices is broad and may assess implementation, but it is less objective than an actual controlled attack.

• Design/compliance effectiveness: policies, standards, and procedures
• Operational effectiveness: logs, records, and evidence that controls operate
• Technical security effectiveness: penetration testing or vulnerability testing

• The VM keeps its configuration, disks, IP settings, and associated resources.
• The operation may cause downtime.
• You cannot guarantee that it will move specifically to Host2; Azure selects the new host.
• Update management is for update configuration, not host relocation.
• Moving to another subscription does not move the VM to a different physical host.
• Usage location is unrelated to VM placement.

1. Convert text and images into numerical embeddings.
2. Store or compare those embeddings.
3. Retrieve the most semantically similar items.

• Embedding model: Best for similarity search and retrieval.
• Generation model: Best for producing new text or other content from multimodal input.

• Data loss prevention (DLP): Helps detect or prevent sensitive data from being copied or transmitted, but it does not primarily protect a stolen laptop’s stored data.
• Operating system hardening: Reduces vulnerabilities and attack surface but does not encrypt files if the device is stolen.
• Boot security: Helps ensure that only trusted software starts, but it does not fully protect the drive if an attacker accesses it offline.

• Continuous deployment: Automates software releases; it does not specifically test input handling.
• Static code analysis: Examines source or compiled code without executing it. It can find coding flaws but does not directly stress the application with malformed inputs.
• Manual peer review: Developers inspect code or design manually. Useful, but not the best practice specifically for testing how a live product handles invalid input.

• Code suggestions: Inline completions as you write code, such as lines, functions, or blocks.
• Chat: An interactive interface for asking questions, explaining code, generating code, and helping with debugging.

• Knowledge Base: Not listed as a standard Copilot Individual IDE feature in this context.
• Pull Request Diff Analysis: More closely associated with GitHub-based code review or pull-request features, not the core Individual IDE extension capabilities.

• R-squared (R²): mede quanto da variação dos valores reais é explicada pelo modelo. É mais usado em regressão, não em classificação.

• Accuracy (acurácia): mede a proporção de previsões corretas em relação ao total. É adequada para a classificação de imagens da questão.

• RMSE (Root Mean Squared Error): mede o tamanho médio dos erros entre valores previstos e reais, penalizando erros maiores. É usado principalmente em regressão.

• Learning rate (taxa de aprendizado): controla o tamanho dos ajustes feitos pelo modelo durante o treinamento. Não é uma métrica de avaliação; é um hiperparâmetro.

• Microsoft 365 groups can contain users, but generally can’t contain other groups as members.
• Security groups can contain users and, where supported, other security groups.
• Distribution groups have different nesting restrictions and aren’t equivalent to security groups.
• Dynamic groups can’t be manually populated with members; their membership is calculated from rules.
• A group’s membership type (Assigned or Dynamic) and group type determine whether it can be added to another group.

• The explanation states that Traffic Analytics can be enabled by a user with one of these subscription-level roles:

• Question 34 — Network Contributor: Yes
• Question 35 — Owner: Yes
• Question 36 — Reader: Yes, according to the stated explanation and documentation

• A — Reports: Reports are informational and don’t enforce access during an SSO transaction.
• B — Apex trigger and Permission Sets: A trigger could update permissions when a Case changes, but this creates synchronization and timing issues. It also changes Salesforce permissions rather than making a direct, real-time decision for the external system.
• C — Custom SAML JIT Provisioning: JIT provisioning is primarily for creating or updating users at login. It isn’t the appropriate mechanism for dynamically querying business records and deciding whether access should be granted.
• D — Connected App Handler: Designed for custom, programmatic control during connected-app authentication and authorization. Apex can check the user’s current open classified cases and permit or reject the SSO request.

• AWS Audit Manager continuously collects evidence from AWS services and helps assess whether workloads comply with regulatory frameworks and internal policies. It can produce audit-ready reports.
• AWS Config records resource configurations and evaluates them against compliance rules. For example, it can check whether encryption, logging, or access settings meet company requirements.

• Amazon Inspector identifies software vulnerabilities and unintended network exposure, not general policy or regulatory compliance.
• Amazon CloudWatch monitors metrics, logs, and operational events, but is not primarily a compliance assessment service.
• AWS CloudTrail records API activity for auditing and investigation. It supports compliance, but does not itself provide the structured compliance assessment capabilities of Audit Manager and Config.

• A — Custom Button: A button can launch a flow, typically by passing the flow’s URL and record context.
• D — From a Process: A Process can invoke a flow using an Apex action configured for flow invocation. However, this is automation-triggered, not directly accessed by a user.
• B — Quick Action: In current Salesforce functionality, a Flow Quick Action can launch a screen flow directly from a record page. This makes B a valid modern method.
• C — Visual Workflow Launcher: This is not generally listed as a standard access method in current Salesforce terminology; Salesforce commonly uses the Flow component on Lightning pages instead.

• Internal interface ? connected toward the corporate network/internal firewall
• External interface ? connected toward the Internet-facing firewall

1. A route for the internal corporate network through the internal-facing interface/firewall.
2. A default route (0.0.0.0/0) through the Internet-facing interface/firewall.

• vSmart controls the overlay control plane. It uses OMP to exchange routing information, distribute policies, and determine how WAN Edge devices reach one another.
• vManage is the centralized management and configuration platform.
• vBond is the orchestrator. It helps devices authenticate, discover controllers, and traverse NAT during onboarding.
• APIC-EM is not the SD-WAN control-plane component described here.