Salesforce Sales-Admn-202 Exam Prep
Salesforce Certified CPQ Administrator (Page 6 )

• Voice devices ? VLAN 10
• Data devices ? VLAN 20
• SVI for VLAN 10 ? 192.168.10.1
• SVI for VLAN 20 ? 192.168.20.1

• A: Describes a physical trunk interface, not an SVI.
• B: An SVI can provide management access, but that is not its primary definition here.
• D: SVI does not compensate for insufficient physical ports; it is a logical interface.

1. Determine which host was infected first—the originating host.
2. Decide whether each other host is clean or infected based on communication and event logs.

• Compare timestamps and find the earliest suspicious event.
• Look for the host that initiated the malicious connection, file transfer, exploit, or command—not merely a host that later received traffic.
• Follow the timeline through the firewall:

• A host is likely infected if it both receives suspicious activity and then initiates related malicious traffic.
• A host may be clean if the firewall blocked the connection and there is no evidence of execution or follow-on communication.

• OpenID Connect (OIDC) is an authentication layer built on OAuth 2.0.
• It returns an ID token, normally a JWT containing identity claims such as the user’s subject, name, email, or other permitted attributes.
• The wellness application can consume those claims without needing a separate user-information call.

• JWT Bearer Token Flow: intended for server-to-server authorization and does not primarily provide an end-user ID token.
• Web Server Flow: is an OAuth authorization-code flow. It can be used with OIDC in some implementations, but “Web Server Flow” alone does not specifically guarantee an ID token.
• User Agent Flow: describes an OAuth flow, not the identity protocol itself.

• Disabling GPS: Affects location services, not email connectivity.
• Configuring 4G usage only: Does not enable international data access and could prevent connectivity if 4G is unavailable.
• Connecting using a hotspot: Could provide data, but it is not the most direct solution and depends on another network or device.

• Wiping securely overwrites the drive so the original data cannot reasonably be recovered. It is generally less expensive than physically destroying the device.
• Recycling could expose the data if the drive is not securely erased first.
• Shredding physically destroys the drive and is effective, but usually more costly and prevents reuse.
• Deletion only removes file references; it is not a secure sanitization method.

Why

cmd 
PowerShell.exe -ExecutionPolicy Bypass -File C:\Scripts\ConfigureVM.ps1

Why the other options are less suitable

• GPO logon script: Runs only when a user logs on and may not run during initial VM provisioning.
• GPO startup script: Can work, but requires the VM to be joined to the domain and the policy to be applied. It is also normally evaluated at each startup.
• Place scripts in a VHD: Merely placing scripts on a disk does not cause them to execute.

• Replace the keyboard: More expensive and unnecessary before simpler causes are ruled out.
• Replace the key switch: Laptop keyboards generally aren’t designed for individual switch replacement.
• Replace the circuit board: Excessive for a single nonworking key and not a cost-effective first step.

• The VM keeps its configuration, disks, IP settings, and associated resources.
• The operation may cause downtime.
• You cannot guarantee that it will move specifically to Host2; Azure selects the new host.
• Update management is for update configuration, not host relocation.
• Moving to another subscription does not move the VM to a different physical host.
• Usage location is unrelated to VM placement.

• You provision the virtual machine.
• You manage the guest operating system, applications, and configuration.
• Azure manages the physical servers, datacenter, and underlying virtualization infrastructure.

• vSmart controls the overlay control plane. It uses OMP to exchange routing information, distribute policies, and determine how WAN Edge devices reach one another.
• vManage is the centralized management and configuration platform.
• vBond is the orchestrator. It helps devices authenticate, discover controllers, and traverse NAT during onboarding.
• APIC-EM is not the SD-WAN control-plane component described here.

• Multiple nodes: Data is replicated several times in the primary region.
• Separate geography: A copy is asynchronously replicated to a secondary Azure region.
• Readable secondary: RA-GRS provides read-only access to the secondary replica, even when the primary region is available.

• GRS: Replicates to another region but the secondary copy isn’t normally readable.
• ZRS: Replicates across availability zones in the same region, not a separate geographic region.
• LRS: Keeps replicas within a single datacenter or region and provides no geographic redundancy.

1. Download the updated VPN client configuration package from the Azure VPN gateway.
2. Remove or update the existing VPN client configuration on the Windows 10 workstation.
3. Install the new package and reconnect.

• The files are stored in a document library, which is exposed through the SharePoint Folder connector.
• The connector returns file metadata, including Folder Path, Name, and Content.
• In Power Query, filter Folder Path so only files in the manufacturing reports folder are retained.
• You can then combine the remaining Excel files because they all have the same structure.

• SharePoint List is for SharePoint lists, not document-library files.
• Combine & Load combines files immediately, before you filter to the required folder, and may include unwanted files.
• Transform gives you the opportunity to filter the file list first, which is more efficient and targeted.

• Planning — identify the need, objectives, resources and feasibility.
• Analysis — determine user requirements and examine the existing system.
• Design — specify how the new system will work.
• Implementation — build, test, install and introduce the system.
• Maintenance/evaluation — monitor and improve the system after implementation.

• The correct answer is A: CCTV recordings are not regularly reviewed.

• CCTV is a monitoring/control mechanism. If recordings aren’t reviewed, security events (break-ins, policy violations, equipment tampering) can go undetected and unaddressed.
• Regular review is essential for deterrence, incident response, and forensic evidence. Without it, the entire CCTV control provides little value.

• B (records deleted after one year) affects forensic availability, but it’s a data-retention issue rather than the ongoing effectiveness of the surveillance program.
• C (footage not recorded 24x7) creates gaps in coverage, which is a concern, but regular review of available footage still supports detection; 24x7 coverage is a separate policy/perimeter issue.
• D (cameras not in break rooms) is more about privacy and space planning than core data-center security monitoring.

• Elicited and documented customer requirements
• Converted them into clear, measurable specifications
• Validated the requirements with the customer
• Used them as the basis for design, quality checks, and acceptance

• A: Requirements should reflect the customer’s needs—not the supplier’s standards.
• B: Iteration review planning does not replace proper requirements collection.
• D: A retrospective occurs after work is completed and is mainly for process improvement, not initial requirements definition.

sql 
GRANT ALTER ON SCHEMA::schemaA TO User1;

• TRUNCATE TABLE is a DDL operation, not a normal DELETE.
• Having DELETE permission on a table is not sufficient to truncate it.
• The minimum relevant permission is ALTER on the table.
• Granting ALTER on SCHEMA::schemaA allows the user to truncate tables within schemaA.
• It does not grant equivalent permissions on schemaB or schemaC, satisfying least privilege.

1. Identify every Region containing a replica.
2. Schedule deletion of the KMS key in each Region.
3. Use the minimum KMS waiting period: 7 days.

• A — Use the root user: Root access does not eliminate the need to schedule deletion for every regional replica. The problem is the multi-Region structure, not insufficient administrative permissions.

• C — Update the key policy: The policy already grants kms:* to IAM principals. Changing permissions does not delete the key or its replicas.

• D — Disable the key and schedule deletion in 30 days: Disabling can stop cryptographic use, but 30 days is slower than the permitted 7-day waiting period. It also does not address replicas in other Regions.

• The correct setting to configure is the Enrollment Status Page (ESP) profile.
• Why: ESP tracks the enrollment progress and logs during Autopilot provisioning. You can enable log collection within the ESP policy so that, if ESP times out, the user can collect and share the logs with support.
• Optional enhancement: In the ESP policy (or the Autopilot diagnostics settings), you can enable:

• Automatic enrollment settings: control how devices auto-enroll, not log collection.
• Windows Autopilot deployment profile: controls deployment steps but not ESP log collection.
• Device configuration profile: applies settings but doesn’t provide ESP log collection mechanics.

• A single Construction Job can use multiple Machinery records.
• A single Machinery record may be used on multiple Construction Jobs.
• This is a many-to-many relationship, which Salesforce models using a junction object.
• The junction object can contain fields such as:

• Master-detail to Machinery
• Master-detail to Construction Job
• Date and cost fields

• A — Custom Button: A button can launch a flow, typically by passing the flow’s URL and record context.
• D — From a Process: A Process can invoke a flow using an Apex action configured for flow invocation. However, this is automation-triggered, not directly accessed by a user.
• B — Quick Action: In current Salesforce functionality, a Flow Quick Action can launch a screen flow directly from a record page. This makes B a valid modern method.
• C — Visual Workflow Launcher: This is not generally listed as a standard access method in current Salesforce terminology; Salesforce commonly uses the Flow component on Lightning pages instead.

• Multi-pass wipe: Overwrites the drive’s existing data multiple times, making recovery much more difficult while preserving the drive’s functionality.
• Single-pass wipe: May be sufficient in some modern sanitization standards, but is presented here as less secure than multiple overwrites.
• Degaussing: Uses a strong magnetic field to disrupt data. It can render the drive unusable or unreliable, reducing its resale value.
• Pinning: Is not an appropriate data-sanitization method.

• Low usage during the first three weeks
• Very high usage during the last week

• High availability: Keeps services running despite failures.
• High latency: Means slow response times; it is not a benefit.
• Load balancing: Distributes traffic across resources but does not specifically address scaling resources up and down.

• administrators — Full access to switch configuration and REST API functions; excessive for this requirement.
• sysadmin — Intended for highly privileged system administration, not basic monitoring.
• helpdesk — More limited and focused on troubleshooting/support functions; it does not match the stated default role and level-1 requirement as directly.

• nomes de pessoas;
• organizações;
• locais;
• datas;
• números de processos;
• leis ou contratos.

• NER = identifica informações específicas e classificáveis.
• Sumarização = reduz um documento e apresenta seus pontos principais.

• Amazon Kendra is a managed enterprise search service that can index content stored in S3 and support natural-language queries to find text inside documents (PDFs, Word files, etc.).

• Rekognition analyzes images/videos, not document text search.
• Polly is a text-to-speech service.
• Lex is a chatbot service.

• Create a Kendra index.
• Add a data source of type S3 and point it to your bucket (with an IAM role that allows access).
• Configure/document conversion if needed, then index the data.
• Use the Kendra API or console to run natural-language queries against your indexed documents.

• I can’t view the images, so I can’t tell which table is labeled as A in your screenshot. But here’s how to decide:

• How to identify the fact table:

• How to identify the surrogate key in the Patient table:

• Relationship:

• Multiple AWS accounts: Create a separate account for each department or workload. This provides clear isolation and makes it easier to track each department’s usage and costs for chargeback.
• Consolidated billing: AWS Organizations can combine billing for multiple accounts into one central payer account. The company can still view costs by account while managing payment centrally.

• Placement groups: Control how EC2 instances are physically placed for networking or performance; they do not provide departmental billing separation.
• Edge locations: Infrastructure used by services such as Amazon CloudFront; unrelated to chargeback.
• AWS Config: Records and evaluates resource configurations and compliance; it is not a billing-separation mechanism.

• A: Person Accounts cannot be merged directly with standard Contact records.
• C: There is no Account Setup option that automatically merges Person Account duplicates.
• D: Matching rules and duplicate rules can help identify or prevent duplicates, but they do not automatically merge Person Accounts. Also, relationship considerations do not change the basic merge capability.

• Planning – identifying the need, objectives, scope and resources.
• Analysis – understanding business requirements and current problems.
• Design/development – determining how the system will work.
• Implementation – installing the system and putting it into operation.

• Answer: D

• The strongest security comes from enforcing access at the storage layer. An IAM policy scoped to the Cognito identity prefix restricts each user to their own S3 prefix (folder), so users can only access their own files regardless of client or server code.
• This per-user isolation reduces risk of cross-user data access and is more robust than UI validation or Lambda/API validation alone.
• Implementation note: attach a policy to the Cognito identity role that allows actions on arn:aws:s3:::your-bucket/${cognito-identity.amazonaws.com:sub}/* (per-user prefix). Ensure TLS in transit and enable at-rest encryption (SSE-S3 or SSE-KMS). Use multipart upload for large files up to 300 MB.

• Assign a Teams license to a user — Licenses are assigned through the Microsoft 365 admin center, Microsoft Entra ID, or PowerShell.
• Deploy the Teams client — The Teams admin center manages Teams policies and apps, but it is not the primary tool for deploying the desktop client.
• Prevent users from creating teams — Team creation depends on controlling the creation of Microsoft 365 groups, generally configured through Microsoft Entra ID and PowerShell rather than directly in the Teams admin center.

• Correct answer: D — use the same hashing algorithm as the sender's to create a numerical representation of the file.

• Integrity is verified by recomputing the hash on the received data and comparing it to the sender’s hash. This must use the same hash function; if you use a different algorithm, the digests won’t match even if the data is intact.
• The hash output is a fixed-length digest (a numerical representation). Whether you call it a “binary image” or a “numerical representation,” the key is that you generate the same type of digest with the same algorithm and compare them.

• A: same algorithm but the result is described as a binary image instead of a digest; you still compare the digest, but the phrasing is less precise.
• B/C: using a different algorithm would produce a different digest, causing false mismatch or failure to verify integrity.

• Correct choices: A and D.

• Why not B, C, or E?

• Answer: B — Improve employee training and awareness

• Why this is correct:

• Why the other options are less effective here:

• Quick practical note:

• B — Prompts and suggestions retained for 28 days
• C — User engagement data kept for two years

• The key distinction is between content data—your prompts, code context, and generated suggestions—and engagement data, such as usage activity.
• Do not confuse retention with training: enterprise Copilot data is generally not used to train GitHub’s models without appropriate authorization.
• For a current exam, verify the policy version cited by the exam provider. The key’s C is likely correct, but B should be treated cautiously and may no longer reflect the current policy.

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1. Modify the database subnet NACL inbound rules to allow traffic from the new web subnet’s CIDR block on the MySQL port (3306).
2. Modify the database subnet NACL outbound rules to allow return traffic to the new web subnet’s CIDR block on the required ephemeral port range.

• tag=Priv searches the tag field for values beginning with Priv. The wildcard can match the remaining characters, so it matches Privileged.
• tag=Priv would search for the exact tag Priv, not Privileged.
• tag=priv* uses lowercase priv; tag matching is treated as case-sensitive here, so it may not match the tag Privileged.
• tag=privileged uses the wrong capitalization for the exact tag.

• A vulnerability scanner automates discovery of known vulnerabilities and misconfigurations across systems. It can contribute to a supply-chain assessment.
• A penetration test actively attempts exploitation and is usually limited to an agreed scope.
• SCAP standardizes vulnerability and configuration assessment data; it is not the analysis itself.
• Illumination tool is not a commonly defined CompTIA Security+ term.

• The user starts in the corporate portal.
• The portal launches the Salesforce resource.
• The IdP sends the SAML response to Salesforce.

• Connected App + OAuth is for OAuth authorization and API/app access, not this SAML-based seamless login scenario.
• SP-initiated SSO would begin when the user first requests the Salesforce resource and Salesforce redirects them to the IdP. That is not the described starting point.

powershell 
Get-AzureVM -ServiceName <service-name> -Name <vm-name> | 
  Set-AzureStaticVNetIP -IPAddress <private-ip> | 
  Update-AzureVM

• New-AzureRMVMConfig configures VM settings but does not itself assign the static IP.
• Set-AzureSubnet is not the appropriate cmdlet for assigning a VM’s private IP.
• The Azure portal option mentioned in the question was not the intended method for this older deployment model.
• Changing settings in Windows Network and Sharing Center is incorrect because Azure assigns the IP through the VM’s virtual network interface; manually configuring it inside the guest can cause conflicts.

• Used for communication on the local link or LAN segment
• Automatically generated on IPv6-enabled interfaces
• Not routed by routers to other networks
• Commonly used by devices to communicate with their local IPv6 router
• Begins with FE80 through FEBF

• FC00::/7 — unique local unicast
• FE80::/10 — link-local unicast
• FF00::/8 — multicast
• 2000::/3 — global unicast

• BIOS language support: Useful for usability, but not whether the PC can operate electrically.
• Supply chain security: Concerns procurement and hardware trust, not deployment across countries.
• Power efficiency: Important for energy usage, but it does not ensure compatibility with local power systems.

• Active vs passive: Active assessment involves actively scanning targets by sending probes/packets to identify hosts, services, and vulnerabilities. Passive assessment observes traffic without probing.
• External vs internal: External assessment is about testing from outside the network perimeter; the scenario doesn’t specify external vantage, only that tools are identifying hosts/services across the enterprise network.

• Basic: Self-help only; no technical support or design assessment.
• Developer/Standard: Technical support, but generally not the full proactive architecture guidance required here.
• Professional Direct: Includes proactive guidance and architecture recommendations.
• Premier: Also supports this, but is not the minimum-cost option.

• Use one Azure AD directory for the organization.
• Separate divisions with subscriptions and/or resource groups.
• Assign each division’s administrator appropriate Azure role-based access control (RBAC) permissions, scoped to their subscription or resource group.

• Normalize casing in the data source—for example, convert all values to uppercase or lowercase.
• Add an index key to provide a unique, stable identifier for each row or value.

• Customers access the portal without needing a full Dynamics 365 license.
• They submit case information through portal forms.
• The submitted data is stored in Dataverse tables, such as the Case table.
• Security is controlled using web roles and table permissions, so customers can access only appropriate records.

• Dynamics 365 Connector — connects apps to Dynamics 365 data but is not the portal’s underlying data platform.
• Microsoft SharePoint — useful for documents and collaboration, not the standard case-management data source for portals.
• Microsoft Azure Storage — stores files or other data, but is not the native portal business-data platform.